We do the sorting. You do the medicine.

Renal & Hepatic, the reference

Sheet 11 · 68 explained concepts · in the order of the cards

Each entry says why the rule holds, the tempting wrong answer and why it is wrong, and what the books say. Then the clues that point to it: tap one to see the answer.

Study notes in our own words, checked against the named textbooks and guidelines. Not for patient care. Not affiliated with any examining body.

Core rulesAll entries001 / 68, open the list of all entries

Core rulesOliguria: prerenal or tubular

  1. 001Prerenal oliguria: concentrated urine (osmolality above 400), urine sodium below 20 mmol/L and fractional excretion of sodium below 1%
  2. 002Oliguria with raised urea and creatinine after intraoperative hypotension: prerenal hypovolaemia or acute tubular necrosis
  3. 003Acute renal failure after surgery: its typical features
Core rules001 / 68

Prerenal oliguria: concentrated urine (osmolality above 400), urine sodium below 20 mmol/L and fractional excretion of sodium below 1%

In oliguria without diuretics, a prerenal kidney makes sodium-poor, concentrated urine: urine sodium ≤20 mEq/L, osmolality >400 mOsm/kg, FENa <1%.

Why

When renal perfusion falls but the tubules are still healthy, aldosterone and vasopressin make them reclaim sodium and water hard. Very little sodium leaks into the urine, and the urine that is passed is concentrated. In tubular necrosis the damaged tubules can no longer conserve sodium or concentrate urine. Urine sodium rises above 40, osmolality drops below 400 and FENa goes above 2%. Diuretics force sodium loss, so these indices cannot be trusted once diuretics have been given.

The trap

Low urine osmolality as prerenal. Low osmolality may seem to fit a failing kidney, but it describes dilute urine from tubules unable to concentrate, the intrinsic pattern seen in tubular necrosis. A prerenal kidney still reabsorbs water, so its urine is concentrated.

Evidence

In prerenal oliguria, sodium is retained (urine sodium ≤20 mEq/L), urine is concentrated (>400 mOsm/kg) and FENa is <1%. Without diuretics, urine sodium >40 with osmolality <400 indicates intrinsic renal disease; FENa >2% means tubules cannot conserve sodium.

Sources: Barash 9eStoelting 8eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 70-year-old is oliguric after bowel surgery, with no diuretics given. Urine sodium is 12 mEq/L and FENa 0.6%. What urine osmolality do you expect?

Concentrated urine, above 400 mOsm/kg, in keeping with prerenal oliguria.

An oliguric patient, no diuretics, has urine osmolality 310 mOsm/kg and urine sodium 52 mEq/L. Does this fit a prerenal kidney?

No; dilute, sodium-rich urine means tubular damage, not prerenal.

Common misconception That a failing prerenal kidney passes dilute urine

Report a problem with entry 1: Prerenal oliguria: concentrated urine (osmolality above 400), urine sodium below 20 mmol/L and fractional excretion of sodium below 1%

Core rules002 / 68

Oliguria with raised urea and creatinine after intraoperative hypotension: prerenal hypovolaemia or acute tubular necrosis

Early postoperative oliguria with hypotension is volume depletion until a fluid challenge fails; oliguria persisting after the circulation is restored means tubular necrosis.

Why

When the kidneys are underperfused but the tubules are intact, they defend blood volume by holding on to sodium and water. Urine is scanty, and urinary sodium falls below 20 mEq/L. Restoring volume restores urine flow. If the ischaemia lasts, it injures the tubules. Tubular necrosis is the extension of that prerenal state. The damaged tubules can no longer reabsorb sodium, so urinary sodium rises above 40 mEq/L. Oliguria and rising urea and creatinine then continue even after blood pressure and volume are back to normal.

The trap

Interstitial nephritis. Interstitial nephritis is tempting because it is a real intrinsic renal cause of oliguria with rising urea and creatinine. It fails because the trigger here is hypoperfusion, and the intrinsic lesion that hypoperfusion produces is tubular necrosis. Nothing in the case points to an inflammatory or drug-induced process.

Evidence

Miller names intravascular volume depletion as the leading cause of postoperative oliguria; a fluid challenge restores urine output when hypotension accompanies it. Barash calls tubular necrosis the commonest ischaemic lesion, an extension of prerenal azotaemia. Faust separates the two by urinary sodium.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 68-year-old is oliguric 4 hours after a hypotensive hip operation; urinary sodium is 12 mEq/L. Prerenal or tubular necrosis, and what is the first step?

Prerenal volume depletion; give a fluid challenge.

Oliguria and rising creatinine persist 48 hours after blood pressure and volume are restored; urinary sodium is 55 mEq/L. Interstitial nephritis or another cause?

Acute tubular necrosis, the ischaemic extension of prerenal failure; not interstitial nephritis.

Common misconception That interstitial nephritis explains oliguria after hypoperfusion

Report a problem with entry 2: Oliguria with raised urea and creatinine after intraoperative hypotension: prerenal hypovolaemia or acute tubular necrosis

Core rules003 / 68

Acute renal failure after surgery: its typical features

Recognise postoperative acute renal failure by rising serum creatinine and urea. A good urine output never excludes it.

Why

In surgical patients, injury is most often tubular necrosis. It lowers glomerular filtration, so the kidneys can no longer clear nitrogenous waste, and creatinine and urea climb in the blood. Urine volume depends on something else: the tubules' ability to concentrate. Damaged tubules lose that ability, so urine can keep flowing at a normal rate while waste clearance fails. Volume therefore tracks water handling, not clearance. The laboratory trend of waste products is the marker. Reported mortality varies widely with severity and setting, so no single figure defines the condition.

The trap

Oliguria as essential to diagnosis. Oliguria is the textbook picture of kidney failure, so preserved urine flow feels reassuring. It is not. Injured tubules cannot concentrate, so volume can stay normal in nonoliguric failure. Present urine flow also poorly predicts later creatinine change.

Evidence

The textbooks define acute kidney injury as a fall in filtration with build-up of creatinine and urea. Urine output often drops, but nonoliguric postoperative forms are common. Urine flow, when present, is a weak predictor of subsequent creatinine change.

Sources: Barash 9eStoelting 8eOutside our books: KDIGO Clinical Practice Guideline for Acute Kidney Injury (2012)Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
After aortic surgery a 66-year-old passes 60 mL/h of urine, yet creatinine rises from 90 to 210 µmol/L over 48 hours. Does the urine output exclude renal failure?

No. Rising creatinine and urea define it; good urine output does not exclude it.

Common misconception That normal urine output rules out acute renal failure

Postoperative tubular necrosis with preserved urine flow. Which finding marks the failing clearance, and why can urine volume mislead?

Rising creatinine and urea; injured tubules cannot concentrate, so volume stays normal.

Report a problem with entry 3: Acute renal failure after surgery: its typical features

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Core rulesStaging acute kidney injury

Core rules004 / 68

Staging acute kidney injury (KDIGO): stage 1 is creatinine 1.5 times baseline or urine below 0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 to under 12 hours; stage 2 is twice baseline or urine below 0.5 mL/kg/h lasting 12 hours or more; stage 3 is three times baseline, creatinine 4 mg/dL or more, dialysis, urine below 0.3 mL/kg/h for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours

Stage creatinine against baseline and weight-indexed urine output with its duration separately; whichever reaches the higher KDIGO stage sets the stage.

Why

Stage 1: creatinine 1.5 times baseline, or urine output under 0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 to under 12 hours. Stage 2: doubled creatinine, or that oliguria for 12 hours or longer. Stage 3: tripled creatinine, creatinine 4 mg/dL or more, dialysis, urine output under 0.3 mL/kg/h over 24 hours, or 12 anuric hours. Either criterion qualifies; the worse decides. A rate of exactly 0.5 is not oliguria. When the urine output has no stated duration, it cannot set the stage; stage by the creatinine ratio.

The trap

Judging urine volume without indexing to weight. An hourly urine volume that sounds acceptable for an adult can look like no injury at all. Indexed to weight it falls under 0.5 mL/kg/h, and creatinine more than tripled from baseline reaches stage 3 by itself; the worse criterion sets the stage.

Evidence

The worse criterion decides. Stage 1: creatinine 1.5–1.9× baseline or up 26.5 µmol/L, or 6–12 h of urine under 0.5 mL/kg/h. Stage 2: creatinine 2.0–2.9×, or that low output past 12 h. Stage 3: creatinine 3× or 4 mg/dL, dialysis, or 12 h anuria.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eOutside our books: KDIGO Clinical Practice Guideline for Acute Kidney Injury (2012)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 70 kg adult has urine output of 30 mL/h for 14 hours and creatinine unchanged from baseline. Which KDIGO stage applies?

Stage 2: output is below 0.5 mL/kg/h and has lasted 12 hours or longer.

Common misconception That 30 mL/h sounds acceptable, so there is no injury

Creatinine has tripled from baseline, but urine output has been adequate for the past 8 hours. Which stage, and which criterion decides?

Stage 3; the worse criterion, creatinine three times baseline, sets the stage.

Common misconception That good urine output cancels a creatinine rise

Report a problem with entry 4: Staging acute kidney injury (KDIGO): stage 1 is creatinine 1.5 times baseline or urine below 0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 to under 12 hours; stage 2 is twice baseline or urine below 0.5 mL/kg/h lasting 12 hours or more; stage 3 is three times baseline, creatinine 4 mg/dL or more, dialysis, urine below 0.3 mL/kg/h for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours

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Core rulesChild-Pugh class and surgical risk

  1. 005Child-Pugh score: bilirubin, albumin, INR or prothrombin time, ascites and encephalopathy give classes A, B and C
  2. 006Perioperative mortality by Child-Pugh class: A up to 10%, B up to about 30%, C up to about 80%
Core rules005 / 68

Child-Pugh score: bilirubin, albumin, INR or prothrombin time, ascites and encephalopathy give classes A, B and C

Score each of the five variables 1–3 and sum them: 5–6 is class A, 7–9 is class B, and 10 or more is class C.

Why

Each variable tracks a separate failure. Albumin and INR show how much protein the liver still makes, bilirubin shows how well it clears, ascites shows portal hypertension and encephalopathy shows brain toxicity. The worst band of any variable scores 3 points and no variable scores below 1, so a few severe findings can settle the class even when some values are missing. One textbook writes class C as above 10, but the modified table includes 10 in class C, so a total of exactly 10 is class C.

The trap

Mid-range bilirubin implies moderate class. Bilirubin is only mid-range and albumin isn't given, so the patient seems moderately ill. But INR above 2.3 and tense ascites score 3 points each, encephalopathy with GCS 11 scores at least 2, and the missing albumin adds at least 1. That makes 11 or more.

Evidence

The modified table scores albumin, prothrombin time or INR, bilirubin, ascites and encephalopathy from 1 to 3 points each. Total 5–6 is class A, 7–9 is class B and 10–15 is class C. Encephalopathy is graded I to IV, from mild symptoms up to coma.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A cirrhotic has INR 2.5, tense ascites, GCS 11 with encephalopathy, mid-range bilirubin and no albumin result. Can Child-Pugh class still be assigned?

Yes, class C: at least 11 points from the known variables.

Common misconception That missing albumin prevents classification, or that mid bilirubin means moderate disease

A patient's five Child-Pugh variables total exactly 10 points. Which class, and what are the bands?

Class C; 5–6 is A, 7–9 is B, 10 or more is C.

Report a problem with entry 5: Child-Pugh score: bilirubin, albumin, INR or prothrombin time, ascites and encephalopathy give classes A, B and C

Core rules006 / 68

Perioperative mortality by Child-Pugh class: A up to 10%, B up to about 30%, C up to about 80%

Sum the Child-Pugh points: 10 or more is class C, with surgical mortality 60–80% (Barash) or 75–80% (Stoelting), far above class B.

Why

Child-Pugh adds points for bilirubin, albumin, INR, ascites and encephalopathy. Each marker scores higher as it worsens. The total sets the class, not a word like 'mild'. Use INR or prothrombin time, never both. A middle-band value on every marker gives a total of 10, which is class C. Sources quote class C differently: Stoelting gives 75–80%; Barash, pooling decades of studies, gives 60–80%; Miller cites early series up to 82% and notes lower rates in newer work. All put class C far above class B, so expect about 60–80%.

The trap

Class B mortality of about 30%. Because the ascites and behavioural change are called 'mild', the patient sounds moderate, so class B's 30% feels right. But the points decide the class, not the adjectives. Every marker scores in the middle band, so the total reaches class C, and class C mortality is about 60–80%.

Evidence

Stoelting gives surgical mortality of 10%, 30% and 75–80% for classes A, B and C. Barash, across decades of studies, gives 10%, 17–30% and 60–80%. Miller's table puts class C at 10–15 points and says early mortality figures have fallen in recent studies.

Sources: Stoelting 8eBarash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A cirrhotic patient scores a middle-band value on every Child-Pugh marker, total 10 points, with 'mild' ascites. Which class, and what surgical mortality?

Class C; about 60 to 80% mortality.

Ascites and confusion are described as mild, so a colleague quotes class B mortality of about 30%. What is wrong?

Points set the class, not adjectives; 10 points is class C.

Common misconception That mild-sounding features mean class B

Report a problem with entry 6: Perioperative mortality by Child-Pugh class: A up to 10%, B up to about 30%, C up to about 80%

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Part 1 · DecisionsProcedures in kidney disease

  1. 007Child with nephrotic syndrome, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and hypotensive before dialysis-line insertion: the preoperative investigation
  2. 008Percutaneous renal biopsy: the contraindications
  3. 009Arterial line in end-stage renal disease with an arm fistula after a failed radial attempt: which site
Part 1007 / 68

Child with nephrotic syndrome, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and hypotensive before dialysis-line insertion: the preoperative investigation

Treat as shock: bedside echocardiogram decides fill or drain; chest film explains fast breathing; gas and ECG regardless; no source names one test.

Why

Here, protein loss usually leaves the circulation underfilled, and albumin reverses those signs; renal failure adds pericardial effusion, and clotting tendency adds pulmonary embolism. Stoelting advises seeking tamponade when hypotension in end-stage renal disease resists fluid. A bedside echo can look for an empty, compressed or failing heart, deciding fill or drain; a chest film shows pleural fluid or lung water but cannot decide that. A blood gas for potassium and acid-base, and an ECG, are reasonable whichever image is chosen. Give albumin only once overload is excluded.

The trap

Blood gas as the explanatory test. A blood gas is tempting: renal failure brings high potassium and acidosis, and both must be known first. But it grades how sick the child is; it cannot show an effusion, a failing heart or lung water, so it does not explain the shock.

Evidence

Stoelting notes nephrotic patients can become hypovolaemic with tachycardia and hypotension, which albumin improves, and are prone to pulmonary embolism; in end-stage renal disease, hypotension not corrected by fluid should trigger an immediate search for tamponade.

Sources: Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 6-year-old with nephrotic syndrome awaiting dialysis-line insertion is tachycardic, tachypnoeic and hypotensive. Which bedside test best separates a need for fluid from a need to drain?

Bedside echocardiogram, to decide whether to fill or drain.

Same child, shocked before line insertion. A blood gas shows potassium 6.2 mmol/L and acidosis. Does this explain the shock, and what else is needed?

No. It grades severity only; echo is needed to find effusion or failing heart.

Common misconception That a blood gas explains the shock in renal failure

Report a problem with entry 7: Child with nephrotic syndrome, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and hypotensive before dialysis-line insertion: the preoperative investigation

Part 1008 / 68

Percutaneous renal biopsy: the contraindications

A bleeding disorder rules out percutaneous renal biopsy. A solitary kidney is only a relative bar. Hypertension counts only when it is uncontrolled.

Why

A needle passed into kidney tissue will bleed, so a clotting defect rules out the percutaneous route. A solitary kidney was long an absolute bar, but high-resolution real-time ultrasound guidance has made it relative: the concern is not extra bleeding but that a complication could cost the patient their only kidney. One review calls uncontrolled hypertension absolute, the other relative. Both lead to the same practice: control the pressure first. Once controlled, hypertension is no barrier.

The trap

Any hypertension contraindicates biopsy. Hypertension appears on every contraindication list for renal biopsy, so any hypertension seems to rule a biopsy out. Both reviews, though, name only uncontrolled pressure. Once hypertension has been treated and controlled, it is no longer a reason to withhold the biopsy.

Evidence

With ultrasound guidance, solitary kidney no longer mandates open biopsy: bleeding risk is not higher, though a complication could cost the kidney. One review lists clotting disorders and uncontrolled hypertension as absolute contraindications; another lists solitary kidney, infection, uncontrolled hypertension and anaemia as relative.

Sources: Outside our books: Renal Biopsy for Diagnosis in Kidney Disease: Indication, Technique, and Safety (2023)Outside our books: Performing a percutaneous kidney biopsy (2026)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A patient with a clotting disorder and a solitary kidney needs percutaneous renal biopsy. Which is an absolute bar and which relative?

Clotting disorder is absolute; solitary kidney is relative with ultrasound guidance.

A 58-year-old has hypertension, treated and now controlled. Does this preclude percutaneous renal biopsy?

No; only uncontrolled hypertension counts, so control the pressure first.

Common misconception That any hypertension contraindicates renal biopsy

Report a problem with entry 8: Percutaneous renal biopsy: the contraindications

Part 1009 / 68

Arterial line in end-stage renal disease with an arm fistula after a failed radial attempt: which site

In end-stage renal disease, keep every arm artery for future dialysis access: never use the fistula arm; after a failed radial, choose the femoral artery.

Why

For patients in general, Miller's notes the ulnar artery can be cannulated safely even after a failed attempt on the radial artery of the same arm. End-stage renal disease is a different setting: Stoelting's warns that radial, ulnar, brachial and axillary vessels are the raw material for future fistulae, so puncturing them may cost the patient dialysis access. The fistula arm is excluded because the shunt makes pressure and gas readings from that limb unreliable. The femoral line spares all arm vessels; its price is infection in an immunocompromised patient.

The trap

Ulnar artery of the same arm. Miller's explicitly supports the ulnar artery after a failed radial attempt on the same side, so it looks textbook-correct. That advice is for patients in general. In end-stage renal disease the ulnar artery is a likely future fistula site and should be preserved, as should the brachial.

Evidence

The renal text advises sparing the radial, ulnar, brachial and axillary arteries in dialysis patients, accepts femoral lines despite infection risk, and warns that fistula-limb readings are inaccurate. The general text allows ulnar cannulation after failed same-side radial attempt.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 60-year-old dialysis patient has a left forearm fistula and needs an arterial line. The right radial attempt failed. Which site next?

Femoral artery, preserving arm vessels for future dialysis access.

After a failed right radial attempt in a dialysis patient, a trainee tries the right ulnar, as is acceptable in general patients. Why avoid it here?

Arm arteries are future fistula sites; ulnar should be preserved.

Common misconception That ulnar cannulation after failed radial is safe in end-stage renal disease

Report a problem with entry 9: Arterial line in end-stage renal disease with an arm fistula after a failed radial attempt: which site

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Part 1 · DecisionsThe volatile in liver disease

  1. 010Volatile agent in hepatitis or cirrhosis: avoid halothane; isoflurane and sevoflurane preserve hepatic blood flow
  2. 011Autoimmune hepatitis and the volatile agents: halothane is the one to avoid
Part 1010 / 68

Volatile agent in hepatitis or cirrhosis: avoid halothane; isoflurane and sevoflurane preserve hepatic blood flow

In hepatitis or cirrhosis, maintain anaesthesia with sevoflurane. It preserves hepatic blood flow and forms no immunogenic metabolites. Never use halothane.

Why

Volatile agents reduce hepatic blood flow. With isoflurane and sevoflurane, the hepatic arterial buffer response makes up for the fall in portal flow. Halothane abolishes this response and depresses the heart, so it causes the largest fall. Miller finds the buffer also intact with desflurane, but Barash reports that desflurane lowers flow more at 1 MAC. Sevoflurane or isoflurane is therefore safe under both views. Halothane hepatitis is immune-mediated through oxidative halide metabolites. Isoflurane carries minimal risk and sevoflurane produces none.

The trap

Isoflurane as the liver-friendly volatile. Isoflurane is the classic liver-friendly volatile and protects hepatic blood flow as well as sevoflurane does. It is not the best choice, because it still forms oxidative halide metabolites, with a small risk of immune hepatitis. Sevoflurane forms none, which matters most in autoimmune or inflamed livers.

Evidence

Halothane causes the greatest fall in hepatic blood flow and loses the arterial buffer response. Isoflurane and sevoflurane barely reduce flow at 1 MAC, and one text finds desflurane lowers it more. Only sevoflurane generates no oxidative halide metabolites.

Sources: Barash 9eStoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 55-year-old with decompensated cirrhosis needs a laparotomy. Which volatile agent should maintain anaesthesia, and which must be avoided?

Sevoflurane preferred; never halothane.

A colleague picks isoflurane for a patient with autoimmune hepatitis because it protects hepatic blood flow. Why is sevoflurane still the better choice?

Isoflurane forms oxidative halide metabolites with small immune risk; sevoflurane forms none.

Common misconception That isoflurane is as safe as sevoflurane in inflamed livers

Report a problem with entry 10: Volatile agent in hepatitis or cirrhosis: avoid halothane; isoflurane and sevoflurane preserve hepatic blood flow

Part 1011 / 68

Autoimmune hepatitis and the volatile agents: halothane is the one to avoid

With autoimmune hepatitis, avoid halothane, the volatile with by far the highest immune hepatitis risk; sevoflurane is safest, desflurane and isoflurane acceptable.

Why

Severe post-anaesthetic hepatitis is attributed to an immune reaction: oxidative metabolism yields reactive trifluoroacetyl intermediates that bind hepatocyte proteins, which then act as neoantigens and provoke antibodies. Risk tracks how much of each agent is oxidatively metabolised, so it is highest with halothane, falling through enflurane and isoflurane to remote with desflurane. Sevoflurane forms no such metabolites at all. Barash calls the immune evidence strong; Miller says proof is lacking; both agree newer agents rarely cause it, so halothane is the agent to avoid.

The trap

Isoflurane as the riskiest volatile. Isoflurane is tempting because it, like halothane, forms trifluoroacetyl-type metabolites and has been linked to fulminant hepatic necrosis. But it is metabolised far less, so its immune hepatitis risk is minimal; halothane's risk is greatest, making it the agent to avoid.

Evidence

Antibodies to liver proteins altered by halothane's trifluoroacetyl metabolite are found in halothane hepatitis. Predicted allergic hepatitis incidence is greatest with halothane, minimal with isoflurane, remote with desflurane; sevoflurane makes none of these oxidative metabolites, and severe hepatitis after newer agents is extremely rare.

Sources: Stoelting 8eBarash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 44-year-old with known autoimmune hepatitis needs laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which volatile agent should be avoided because of its immune-mediated hepatitis risk?

Halothane, which carries by far the highest immune hepatitis risk.

A 52-year-old with autoimmune hepatitis has a hernia repair. A colleague proposes isoflurane to avoid halothane's trifluoroacetyl metabolites. Is isoflurane the riskiest choice, and which agent is safest?

No. Isoflurane is minimally risky; halothane is worst and sevoflurane is safest.

Common misconception That isoflurane carries the greatest immune hepatitis risk because it forms trifluoroacetyl-type metabolites

Report a problem with entry 11: Autoimmune hepatitis and the volatile agents: halothane is the one to avoid

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Part 1 · DecisionsWhich fluid, which drug, which renal support

  1. 012Dehydrated patient with metabolic acidosis: isotonic crystalloid first
  2. 013Hydroxyethyl starch causes acute kidney injury, especially in sepsis: avoid it
  3. 014Renal protective drug before suprarenal aortic cross-clamping: mannitol, though no drug is proven to protect
  4. 015Haemodynamically unstable patient with acute kidney injury: continuous renal replacement therapy
Part 1012 / 68

Dehydrated patient with metabolic acidosis: isotonic crystalloid first

In a dry, acidotic patient, restore circulating volume first with an isotonic crystalloid; favour a balanced solution over saline if large volumes are needed.

Why

Sunken eyes and cold peripheries mean hypovolaemia. Poor tissue and kidney perfusion drives the acidosis and keeps it going. Isotonic crystalloid refills the intravascular space and brings back perfusion and urine flow, so the acid is cleared and the acidosis largely corrects itself. Guidelines prefer crystalloid to colloid for the first volume expansion unless the patient is bleeding. Saline is still acceptable, but Miller warns that its chloride load can add a hyperchloraemic acidosis. A balanced isotonic solution is safer when a lot of volume is needed.

The trap

Giving bicarbonate for low bicarbonate. Bicarbonate is tempting because the measured bicarbonate is low. But this acidosis comes from poor perfusion, and a buffer does not replace lost volume. Diabetic ketoacidosis guidance gives fluids first and keeps bicarbonate for extreme acidaemia only (pH below 6.9).

Evidence

KDIGO suggests isotonic crystalloid rather than colloid as first-line volume expansion when there is no haemorrhagic shock. Barash corrects acidosis by expanding intravascular volume and keeps bicarbonate for pH below 6.9. Miller notes that saline may cause hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis.

Sources: Outside our books: KDIGO Clinical Practice Guideline for Acute Kidney Injury (2012)Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 40-year-old has sunken eyes, cold peripheries and a low bicarbonate. What is the first treatment, and why?

Isotonic crystalloid to restore volume and perfusion, which clears the acidosis.

A dehydrated, acidotic patient is given bicarbonate because the measured level is low. Is this right, and when is bicarbonate kept for?

No. Fluids first; bicarbonate is kept for extreme acidaemia, pH below 6.9.

Common misconception That a low bicarbonate level should be treated by giving bicarbonate

Report a problem with entry 12: Dehydrated patient with metabolic acidosis: isotonic crystalloid first

Part 1013 / 68

Hydroxyethyl starch causes acute kidney injury, especially in sepsis: avoid it

In sepsis or critical illness, hydroxyethyl starch is the resuscitation fluid most likely to injure the kidneys. Avoid it; albumin does not share this harm.

Why

Starch was used as a synthetic alternative to albumin. Trials in septic and critically ill patients then showed more kidney failure and more need for dialysis. Its use was therefore restricted, it left routine practice and sepsis guidance advises against it. The harm comes from the type of colloid, not from oncotic pressure: hyperoncotic starch damages the kidney, while albumin appears protective. A perioperative fluid review found no extra renal harm in elective surgery. That finding does not extend to sepsis, where starch should be avoided.

The trap

Hyperoncotic albumin as nephrotoxic. Concentrated albumin is a hyperoncotic colloid, so it seems likely to strain the kidneys more than other fluids. Renal effects depend on the type of colloid: hyperoncotic albumin appears to protect the kidney, and the nephrotoxic colloid is starch.

Evidence

Critically ill and septic patients given starch needed renal replacement more often, so it was dropped from routine use and is not recommended for resuscitation in sepsis. The excess kidney failure was seen in sepsis, not elective surgery. Albumin, by contrast, looks renoprotective.

Sources: Barash 9eOutside our books: Perioperative fluid therapy in adults and children: a narrative review (2025)Outside our books: KDIGO Clinical Practice Guideline for Acute Kidney Injury (2012)Faust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 55-year-old with septic shock needs fluid resuscitation. Which colloid is linked to more renal replacement and should be avoided?

Hydroxyethyl starch.

Which is the odd one out for kidney harm in sepsis: hydroxyethyl starch, hyperoncotic albumin, or crystalloid? A trainee fears hyperoncotic albumin.

The odd one out · Starch is the harmful one; albumin appears renoprotective, not nephrotoxic.

Common misconception That hyperoncotic albumin strains the kidney more than starch

Report a problem with entry 13: Hydroxyethyl starch causes acute kidney injury, especially in sepsis: avoid it

Part 1014 / 68

Renal protective drug before suprarenal aortic cross-clamping: mannitol, though no drug is proven to protect

Before a suprarenal aortic cross-clamp, give mannitol, 12.5 g/70 kg, as the standard renal-protective drug, knowing trials have not shown it prevents renal failure.

Why

Mannitol came into use because of what it does to the ischaemic kidney. It raises renal cortical blood flow while the aorta is clamped, limits endothelial swelling and vascular congestion, and causes an osmotic diuresis. For those reasons, giving it before cross-clamping became almost universal, even though no one had proved it worked. Later clinical trials did not show fewer cases of renal failure. So it is still given, as an accepted but unproven practice. Making more urine does not by itself protect the kidney.

The trap

Furosemide for its diuresis. Furosemide raises urine output and is sometimes asked for during aortic surgery, so it looks protective. But a brisk diuresis is not protection. A loop diuretic can drain the circulating volume and lower renal perfusion, and it does not improve cortical blood flow during clamping the way mannitol does.

Evidence

Mannitol 12.5 g/70 kg is almost universally given before cross-clamping, though drug protection is unproven. Its osmotic diuresis improves cortical blood flow and reduces endothelial oedema and congestion. Trials have not shown it lowers renal failure in these patients.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 66-year-old is having open aneurysm repair with a suprarenal clamp. Which renal-protective drug is given beforehand, and at what dose per 70 kg?

Mannitol 12.5 g/70 kg, though protection is unproven.

Urine output is brisk after furosemide before suprarenal clamping. Does that mean the kidney is protected?

No; diuresis is not protection, and a loop diuretic may lower renal perfusion.

Common misconception That a brisk diuresis from furosemide protects the kidney

Report a problem with entry 14: Renal protective drug before suprarenal aortic cross-clamping: mannitol, though no drug is proven to protect

Part 1015 / 68

Haemodynamically unstable patient with acute kidney injury: continuous renal replacement therapy

When a patient with acute kidney injury needs renal support and is haemodynamically unstable, use continuous renal replacement therapy, not intermittent haemodialysis.

Why

Intermittent haemodialysis packs fluid and solute removal into short sessions. Those abrupt shifts lower blood pressure in a patient whose circulation is already struggling. Continuous techniques spread removal across the whole day and avoid these haemodynamic swings. The guideline does not name one modality as best for everyone. It treats the two as complementary and bases the first choice on local availability, experience and haemodynamic status. A stable patient can have either, but instability points to continuous therapy.

The trap

Intermittent haemodialysis for efficient clearance. A raised creatinine and urea seem to call for fast, efficient clearance, which intermittent sessions give. But removing fluid and solute quickly causes haemodynamic swings. In a hypotensive, tachycardic post-laparotomy patient this deepens the instability that continuous therapy is chosen to avoid.

Evidence

The guideline treats continuous and intermittent therapy as complementary but suggests continuous over standard intermittent therapy when haemodynamics are unstable. It bases the initial choice on availability, experience and haemodynamic status. Textbooks describe continuous filtration for unstable critically ill patients because it avoids haemodynamic fluctuations.

Sources: Outside our books: KDIGO Clinical Practice Guideline for Acute Kidney Injury (2012)Miller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 66-year-old after laparotomy is hypotensive and tachycardic with oliguric acute kidney injury needing renal support. Which modality is preferred?

Continuous renal replacement therapy, to avoid haemodynamic swings.

A colleague wants intermittent haemodialysis for fast urea clearance in a patient on noradrenaline with acute kidney injury. What is the problem?

Rapid fluid and solute removal deepens hypotension in an unstable patient.

Common misconception That faster clearance is better in unstable acute kidney injury

Report a problem with entry 15: Haemodynamically unstable patient with acute kidney injury: continuous renal replacement therapy

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Part 1 · DecisionsThe kidney graft

  1. 016Kidney cold ischaemia time: ideally under 24 hours
  2. 017Anaesthesia for renal transplantation: fluid choice, monitoring and relaxants
  3. 018Kidney transplant: mannitol and furosemide are given before the graft is reperfused
  4. 019Adult donor kidney in a small child: high airway pressure at abdominal closure threatens the graft; peritoneal dialysis has expanded the abdomen
Part 1016 / 68

Kidney cold ischaemia time: ideally under 24 hours

Implant a deceased-donor kidney within 24 hours of cold storage; it tolerates cold better than other solid organs, but longer delays worsen graft outcome.

Why

Miller gives 24 hours as the accepted, ideal limit for static cold storage of a kidney, which is why deceased-donor transplant is urgent. Barash notes a graft can still be implanted safely after 24 hours, possibly up to 36, allowing dialysis beforehand. However, longer storage increases the likelihood of delayed graft function, and storage beyond 24 hours raises the recipient's risk of rejection. Treat 24 hours as the working maximum and 36 hours as a stretch limit, not a target.

The trap

12 hours, the liver's limit. Twelve hours is the accepted cold storage limit for the liver. Mixing up the rows of the organ limits, or assuming kidneys are fragile, leads to it. In fact the kidney tolerates cold storage longest of the main solid organs, about twice the liver's limit.

Evidence

Accepted static cold storage limits are kidney 24 hours, liver 12, heart 6 and lung 4. Kidneys can be safely implanted beyond 24 hours, possibly up to 36, though longer cold times bring delayed graft function and times over 24 hours raise rejection risk.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A deceased-donor kidney is in static cold storage. What is the ideal maximum cold ischaemia time, and what happens beyond it?

Under 24 hours; up to 36 possible but with more delayed function and rejection.

A static cold storage limit of 12 hours belongs to which organ, and how does the kidney's limit compare?

Liver; the kidney tolerates 24 hours, about double.

Common misconception That the kidney's cold storage limit is 12 hours

Report a problem with entry 16: Kidney cold ischaemia time: ideally under 24 hours

Part 1017 / 68

Anaesthesia for renal transplantation: fluid choice, monitoring and relaxants

In kidney transplant, give a balanced salt crystalloid rather than saline, and monitor neuromuscular block closely, especially through wound closure; invasive lines are not routine.

Why

Ringer's lactate and Plasma-Lyte cause less acidosis and less hyperkalaemia than normal saline. That matters in a patient whose own kidneys cannot correct either. Relaxation must stay adequate right up to the end of the operation, so twitch monitoring is needed, most of all during closure. The new kidney is denervated, and adrenergic pressors constrict its vessels, so hypotension is not managed mainly with them. Younger, fitter recipients, including some living-donor recipients, need only standard noninvasive monitors.

The trap

Routine arterial and CVP lines for all recipients. Transplant feels like major surgery in sick, hypertensive patients, so invasive lines seem automatic. But younger, healthier recipients and selected living-donor recipients are adequately managed with standard noninvasive monitoring. So CVP and arterial lines are chosen case by case; they are not always necessary.

Evidence

Balanced salt solutions are the preferred crystalloid because they cause less acidosis and hyperkalaemia than saline. Careful neuromuscular monitoring is needed, particularly at closure. Noninvasive monitors suffice for healthier recipients, and adrenergic vasopressors are generally avoided because the graft is denervated.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A fit 34-year-old living-donor kidney recipient. Which crystalloid, which monitoring plan, and when is neuromuscular monitoring most important?

Balanced salt solution, noninvasive monitors, and twitch monitoring most closely during wound closure.

Does every kidney transplant recipient need an arterial line and CVP because it is major surgery in sick patients?

No; fitter recipients manage with noninvasive monitors, so invasive lines are chosen case by case.

Common misconception That invasive lines are routine in kidney transplant

Report a problem with entry 17: Anaesthesia for renal transplantation: fluid choice, monitoring and relaxants

Part 1018 / 68

Kidney transplant: mannitol and furosemide are given before the graft is reperfused

Give mannitol and furosemide once the vascular anastomoses are under way, so both are on board before clamp removal and graft reperfusion.

Why

The aim is a brisk diuresis as soon as blood reaches the new kidney. Both drugs take time to circulate, so they are started while the surgeon is still joining the vessels, usually the vein first and then the artery. That way they reach the graft when it is unclamped. Mannitol's osmotic action, given with the loop diuretic, is linked to less delayed graft function and less acute renal failure after transplantation.

The trap

Diuretics after ureter is joined. Boosting urine flow once the drainage route is complete feels logical. But the ureter is joined late, after the vascular connections. By then the graft has already been reperfused without the diuretics, and the chance to protect it has gone.

Evidence

Both diuretics are given ahead of reperfusion to promote urine output. Pooled trial data show mannitol lowers both acute renal failure and delayed graft function. Diuresis begins as soon as the vascular joins start, usually vein first, then artery.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
During a kidney transplant the surgeon begins the venous anastomosis. When should mannitol and furosemide be given, and why?

Now, before clamp removal, so they reach the graft and promote diuresis at reperfusion

The surgeon has just completed the ureteric anastomosis and the anaesthetist plans to give the diuretics to boost urine flow. What has gone wrong?

Too late: the graft was already reperfused without diuretic cover

Common misconception That diuretics should wait until the drainage route is complete

Report a problem with entry 18: Kidney transplant: mannitol and furosemide are given before the graft is reperfused

Part 1019 / 68

Adult donor kidney in a small child: high airway pressure at abdominal closure threatens the graft; peritoneal dialysis has expanded the abdomen

Small child, adult kidney: watch peak airway pressure at closure and alert the surgeon; earlier peritoneal dialysis may help by enlarging the abdomen.

Why

An adult kidney is large for a small child's abdomen. It may need to sit in the retroperitoneum, and the abdomen is tight to close. Closing the wall over the graft raises abdominal pressure. The anaesthetist sees this as a climb in peak inspiratory pressure, an early sign of a crowded abdomen that the surgeon must hear about. Chronic peritoneal dialysis has already stretched the cavity, which makes room. Graft vascular thrombosis is a recognised cause of failure in younger children.

The trap

Peritoneal dialysis as a hazard here. Peritoneal dialysis seems hazardous because of the indwelling catheter, possible peritoneal scarring and a dialysis-dependent child. With a size mismatch the reverse applies: long-term dialysis has expanded the abdominal cavity, giving the adult kidney more room and making tight closure less likely.

Evidence

Adult kidneys may need a retroperitoneal site in small children. Chronic peritoneal dialysis may enlarge abdominal volume, but peak inspiratory pressure at closure needs watching; report any rise to the surgeons. Paediatric grafts fail more often than adult ones, with more thrombosis in younger children.

Sources: Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
An adult kidney is placed in a 15 kg child and the surgeon begins closing the abdomen. Peak inspiratory pressure climbs. What should you do?

Tell the surgeon: a crowded abdomen at closure threatens the graft.

A small child on long-term peritoneal dialysis receives an adult kidney. Does the dialysis make abdominal closure harder?

No. It has enlarged the abdominal cavity, giving the graft more room.

Common misconception That peritoneal dialysis makes abdominal closure harder

Report a problem with entry 19: Adult donor kidney in a small child: high airway pressure at abdominal closure threatens the graft; peritoneal dialysis has expanded the abdomen

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Part 1 · DecisionsCorrecting low sodium

  1. 020Hyponatraemia with high urine output after pituitary surgery: cerebral salt wasting, hypovolaemic and hypo-osmolar, treated with saline, not fluid restriction
  2. 021Correcting hyponatraemia with 0.9% saline: sodium deficit = total body water (0.6 x weight in men, 0.5 in women) times the rise wanted, divided by 154 mmol/L
Part 1020 / 68

Hyponatraemia with high urine output after pituitary surgery: cerebral salt wasting, hypovolaemic and hypo-osmolar, treated with saline, not fluid restriction

After pituitary surgery, falling sodium with brisk diuresis is cerebral salt wasting: give isotonic saline and salt, hypertonic only if symptomatic; never restrict fluid.

Why

The brain drives renal sodium loss and water follows it. The patient becomes hypovolaemic while plasma sodium and osmolality fall, giving a hypo-osmolar, hypovolaemic state with high urine output. Restricting fluid would deepen the volume deficit. SIADH, by contrast, is managed by watching and then restricting water. Diabetes insipidus also causes polyuria, but it loses free water, so sodium rises. For the stable patient, a pituitary surgery review advises normal saline with oral salt. A neuroanaesthesia text keeps hypertonic saline for symptomatic hyponatraemia.

The trap

Diabetes insipidus from polyuria. Polyuria after pituitary surgery suggests diabetes insipidus, and a history of desmopressin strengthens that. But diabetes insipidus loses free water and concentrates the plasma, so sodium climbs. Here sodium falls as the patient dries out and then corrects with saline, which is salt wasting.

Evidence

After pituitary surgery, SIADH is watched and then water-restricted, while salt wasting is repleted with normal saline and oral salt. Salt wasting excretes concentrated sodium with a diuresis despite hypovolaemia. Diabetes insipidus raises serum osmolality. Hypertonic saline is kept for symptomatic patients.

Sources: Miller 10eOutside our books: Perioperative management of endoscopic transsphenoidal pituitary surgery (2020)Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Day 3 after transsphenoidal surgery: urine output 200 mL/h, sodium 126 mmol/L, clinically hypovolaemic. What is the diagnosis and the treatment?

Cerebral salt wasting; isotonic saline and salt, no fluid restriction.

A patient has polyuria after pituitary surgery, but sodium is falling rather than rising. Is this diabetes insipidus?

No; diabetes insipidus loses free water, so sodium would rise.

Common misconception That polyuria after pituitary surgery means diabetes insipidus

Report a problem with entry 20: Hyponatraemia with high urine output after pituitary surgery: cerebral salt wasting, hypovolaemic and hypo-osmolar, treated with saline, not fluid restriction

Part 1021 / 68

Correcting hyponatraemia with 0.9% saline: sodium deficit = total body water (0.6 x weight in men, 0.5 in women) times the rise wanted, divided by 154 mmol/L

Litres of 0.9% saline = weight × water fraction × sodium rise ÷ 154, then ÷ hours. Water fraction: women 50%, men 60%.

Why

Sodium spreads through all body water, not just plasma, so the amount needed equals the desired rise multiplied by total body water. Women hold proportionally less water than men, so use 50% of weight rather than 60%. Each litre of 0.9% saline delivers 154 mEq, so sodium needed divided by 154 gives litres; then divide by hours. Too-fast correction risks osmotic demyelination: Miller's SIADH section caps the rise at 8 mEq/L in 24 hours; its symptomatic-hyponatraemia advice permits slightly more, so staying within 8 is safe under both.

The trap

Using male water fraction for a woman. A slightly faster rate looks harmless and close to the computed figure, so rounding up or misremembering the water fraction drifts the rate upward. But a woman's water fraction is 50%; using the male 60% overstates the rate, and any upward error pushes an already fast correction further past safety.

Evidence

Barash puts body water near 60% of weight in men and 50% in women; sodium distributes through total body water; each litre of 0.9% saline holds 154 mEq of sodium; Miller's limits the serum sodium rise to 8 mEq/L over 24 hours, warning of demyelination.

Sources: Barash 9eFaustMayo reviewMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 60 kg woman has sodium 118 mmol/L. Target rise is 8 mmol/L over 24 hours. How much 0.9% saline, and at what rate?

60 × 0.5 × 8 ÷ 154 ≈ 1.56 L, about 65 mL/h.

Why does using 0.6 rather than 0.5 as a woman's body water fraction make the correction unsafe?

It overstates the saline and rate, risking too-fast correction and demyelination.

Common misconception That the male water fraction of 60% applies to women

Report a problem with entry 21: Correcting hyponatraemia with 0.9% saline: sodium deficit = total body water (0.6 x weight in men, 0.5 in women) times the rise wanted, divided by 154 mmol/L

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Part 2 · RecognitionKidney function tests

  1. 022Renal tubular function is tested by the fractional excretion of sodium and urine concentration, not by creatinine clearance
  2. 023Creatinine-based estimates of GFR: what makes them inaccurate
  3. 024Blood urea nitrogen rises independently of GFR with gastrointestinal bleeding, steroids, high protein intake and tetracycline; liver disease and malnutrition lower it
Part 2022 / 68

Renal tubular function is tested by the fractional excretion of sodium and urine concentration, not by creatinine clearance

Renal tubular function is tested by urine concentrating ability (urinalysis) and fractional excretion of sodium. Creatinine clearance and urea measure glomerular filtration, not tubules.

Why

The tubules' job is to reclaim sodium and water. When the tubules are intact, as in dehydration, they conserve both, so urine is concentrated and little sodium escapes. When the tubules are injured, as in acute tubular necrosis, concentration fails and sodium leaks into the urine. Stoelting names urine concentrating ability as the usual test. Miller names FENa as the commonest. These do not conflict: both probe the same reabsorptive work, so either is correct. Creatinine and urea are filtered markers, so they reflect glomerular filtration rate, not tubular handling.

The trap

Creatinine clearance. It is the most familiar renal function test, and creatinine even appears in the FENa calculation. But creatinine clearance only estimates how much plasma the glomeruli filter. It says nothing about whether the tubules reabsorb sodium and water correctly.

Evidence

Stoelting tabulates urea and creatinine clearance as glomerular filtration tests. It puts specific gravity, osmolality and urinary sodium under tubular function, and calls concentrating ability the usual assessment. Miller calls FENa the commonest tubular test: sodium clearance expressed against creatinine clearance.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 66-year-old is oliguric after surgery. Which two tests assess tubular rather than glomerular function?

Fractional excretion of sodium and urine concentrating ability.

Creatinine clearance is reduced in a patient with suspected tubular injury. What does that test actually measure?

Glomerular filtration, not tubular reabsorption of sodium and water.

Common misconception That creatinine clearance tests tubular function

Report a problem with entry 22: Renal tubular function is tested by the fractional excretion of sodium and urine concentration, not by creatinine clearance

Part 2023 / 68

Creatinine-based estimates of GFR: what makes them inaccurate

Whenever a creatinine-based GFR estimate is wrong, blame the creatinine value. In cirrhosis or muscle wasting it reads low, so the GFR is overstated.

Why

Creatinine is not a pure filtration marker. How much is made depends on muscle mass and, in cirrhosis, on liver production. The tubules secrete some of it and some is cleared outside the kidney, and all three vary between patients. So the serum level can stay normal after filtration has already fallen a lot. When production falls, as in cirrhosis, sarcopenia or malnutrition, a low creatinine makes the kidneys look better than they are, and renal dysfunction is missed.

The trap

Blame BUN rather than creatinine. BUN is tempting because urea is the other routine renal blood test. But the standard estimating equation is built on serum creatinine, with cystatin C, age and sex added, not urea. Its errors come from the creatinine value, because creatinine generation, secretion and clearance vary.

Evidence

Anaesthesia texts deem creatinine unreliable: tubular secretion, extrarenal elimination and generation vary, and filtration can fall well before it rises. In cirrhosis, serum creatinine overestimates GFR because reduced hepatic production, sarcopenia and malnutrition lower it. Muscle wasting hides renal dysfunction.

Sources: Miller 10eOutside our books: Acute Kidney Injury and Hepatorenal Syndrome in Patients with Cirrhosis (2023)Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 64-year-old with cirrhosis and sarcopenia has a creatinine of 62 micromol/L and an estimated GFR that looks normal. Is the estimate reliable?

No. Low creatinine production overstates GFR and hides renal dysfunction.

An eGFR from the standard equation is inaccurate in a malnourished patient. Is the error from urea or from creatinine?

From the creatinine value, since its generation, secretion and clearance vary.

Common misconception That blood urea nitrogen drives the error in eGFR

Report a problem with entry 23: Creatinine-based estimates of GFR: what makes them inaccurate

Part 2024 / 68

Blood urea nitrogen rises independently of GFR with gastrointestinal bleeding, steroids, high protein intake and tetracycline; liver disease and malnutrition lower it

BUN tracks urea production, not just filtration: GI bleeding, steroids, high-protein diet and tetracycline raise it; liver disease, malnutrition and sickle cell lower it.

Why

The liver makes urea by breaking down amino acids. So anything that increases the protein load raises BUN even when filtration is normal. Digested blood from a GI bleed, a high-protein diet and steroid-driven catabolism all do this. When the liver fails or protein intake is poor, less urea is made and BUN falls. The tubules also reabsorb a large share of filtered urea. That is why BUN alone is a poor marker of GFR.

The trap

Sickle cell raises urea through kidney damage. Sickle cell disease is known to damage the kidney, so a rise in urea seems likely. The textbook lists it with liver disease and malnutrition as a cause of low BUN. Tetracycline is the agent that raises BUN without any fall in filtration.

Evidence

Urea production climbs with catabolism (a gut bleed, corticosteroids), protein-rich feeding and tetracycline, lifting BUN irrespective of filtration. It drops when hepatic synthesis or nutrition is poor, and in sickle cell anaemia. Hepatic origin plus tubular reabsorption make BUN an unreliable GFR gauge.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 58-year-old has melaena after an upper GI bleed. Creatinine is normal but urea is raised. What explains the high urea?

Digested blood adds protein load, raising urea production independently of GFR.

Liver disease, malnutrition, sickle cell anaemia, tetracycline. Which one does not lower BUN?

The odd one out · Tetracycline raises BUN; the others lower it.

Common misconception That sickle cell kidney damage raises urea

Report a problem with entry 24: Blood urea nitrogen rises independently of GFR with gastrointestinal bleeding, steroids, high protein intake and tetracycline; liver disease and malnutrition lower it

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Part 2 · RecognitionMetabolic alkalosis: cause and consequence

  1. 025Vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis through chloride and volume loss (chloride-responsive alkalosis)
  2. 026Metabolic alkalosis drives potassium into cells and causes hypokalaemia
Part 2025 / 68

Vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis through chloride and volume loss (chloride-responsive alkalosis)

In vomiting, the alkalosis is generated by loss of chloride-rich gastric acid; hypochloraemia is the primary cause, and accompanying hypokalaemia is also a recognised cause.

Why

Gastric juice is hydrochloric acid, so vomiting strips chloride without matching sodium. The strong ion difference widens and plasma becomes alkaline. The shrunken circulating volume then switches on renin and aldosterone, and the kidney reabsorbs more bicarbonate, which keeps the alkalosis going. Chloride is the missing piece, so giving it back as saline corrects the disorder. That is why it is called chloride-responsive. Hypokalaemia comes with it, and is also listed separately as a chloride-resistant cause. It contributes, but chloride loss is the primary driver.

The trap

Volume depletion as primary cause. Volume depletion is tempting because vomiting does dehydrate, and hypovolaemia drives aldosterone-mediated bicarbonate reabsorption. But that only sustains an alkalosis that already exists. The primary defect is chloride lost with gastric acid. The books call it hypochloraemic alkalosis, and it is corrected by replacing chloride.

Evidence

Losing gastric hydrochloric acid removes chloride without sodium, causing a hypochloraemic alkalosis that saline corrects. The hypovolaemia that follows raises renin and aldosterone, which increases bicarbonate reabsorption. Hypokalaemia is listed among the chloride-resistant causes of metabolic alkalosis.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A man with gastric outlet obstruction has vomited for days. pH is 7.52 with raised bicarbonate. Which loss is the primary driver of the alkalosis?

Chloride lost with gastric acid, causing hypochloraemic alkalosis.

In this vomiting alkalosis, saline corrects the disorder. What does the accompanying volume depletion contribute?

It only sustains the alkalosis through aldosterone-driven bicarbonate reabsorption.

Common misconception That volume depletion is the primary cause of the alkalosis

Report a problem with entry 25: Vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis through chloride and volume loss (chloride-responsive alkalosis)

Part 2026 / 68

Metabolic alkalosis drives potassium into cells and causes hypokalaemia

In metabolic alkalosis, hypokalaemia is the consequence: potassium shifts into cells and is lost renally; low chloride is a cause, not a result.

Why

When blood becomes alkalotic, potassium moves out of plasma into cells. Serum potassium falls even though the body's total store has not changed. In metabolic alkalosis the kidney makes the fall worse, because it trades potassium for hydrogen ions to correct the pH. So the drop is bigger than in respiratory alkalosis. Chloride depletion works in the opposite direction. When serum chloride is low, the tubules reabsorb more bicarbonate, which creates or sustains the alkalosis. Hypochloraemia therefore feeds the alkalosis rather than resulting from it.

The trap

Low chloride as result of alkalosis. Vomiting causes low chloride and metabolic alkalosis together, but chloride loss drives the alkalosis, not the reverse: it lets the kidney retain bicarbonate. The alkalosis then lowers potassium, by shifting it into cells and through renal exchange for hydrogen ions.

Evidence

Alkalotic states shift potassium into cells, lowering serum potassium, more so in metabolic than respiratory alkalosis. The kidney compounds this by exchanging potassium for hydrogen ions to compensate. Low chloride, by contrast, increases tubular bicarbonate reabsorption, causing the alkalosis.

Sources: Barash 9eStoelting 8eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A patient with prolonged vomiting has pH 7.55 and a potassium of 2.9 mmol/L. How does the alkalosis lower potassium?

Potassium shifts into cells and is lost renally in exchange for hydrogen ions

In the vomiting patient, low chloride accompanies the alkalosis. Is hypochloraemia a result of the alkalosis, and what does it do?

No: it is a cause, as tubules reabsorb more bicarbonate, sustaining alkalosis

Common misconception That low chloride is a consequence of metabolic alkalosis

Report a problem with entry 26: Metabolic alkalosis drives potassium into cells and causes hypokalaemia

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Part 2 · RecognitionMetabolic acidosis: the gap and the compensation

  1. 027Low pH, low bicarbonate and low PaCO2: metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
  2. 028Large volumes of 0.9% saline cause hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
  3. 029Normal anion gap (hyperchloraemic) acidosis: gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss (diarrhoea, fistula) and renal tubular acidosis
  4. 030Raised anion gap acidosis: advanced renal failure (retained fixed acids), ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis and toxins
  5. 031Low pH, low bicarbonate and a PaCO2 above the expected compensation: mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
  6. 032Anion gap: sodium minus (chloride plus bicarbonate), normal under 13 (Barash); with potassium added, normal 4 to 11 (Miller)
Part 2027 / 68

Low pH, low bicarbonate and low PaCO2: metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

Acidaemic pH with low bicarbonate means a primary metabolic acidosis; a low PaCO2 alongside it is respiratory compensation, never the primary disorder.

Why

Read the pH first. An acidaemic gas means the primary process is an acidosis. When bicarbonate has fallen as well, the problem is metabolic. The lungs respond by hyperventilating, which lowers PaCO2 and pulls the pH back towards normal over 12–24 hours. To check whether the compensation is adequate, the expected PaCO2 is 1.5 times the bicarbonate plus 8 (± 2) mmHg. If the gas is in kPa, convert it first: 5.3 kPa equals 40 mm Hg.

The trap

Calling it a respiratory alkalosis. A low PaCO2 is genuine hyperventilation, so calling the gas a respiratory alkalosis feels natural. But the pH is acidaemic, and a primary alkalosis cannot produce acidaemia. The falling bicarbonate is driving the pH, and the low PaCO2 is only the body's compensating response.

Evidence

One text defines metabolic acidosis as acidaemia below pH 7.35, bicarbonate under 21 mEq/L and a compensating fall in PaCO2. Compensation develops within 12–24 hours and is checked with Winter's formula. Another text gives normal PaCO2 as 40 mm Hg, or 5.3 kPa.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Gas: pH 7.25, bicarbonate 12 mmol/L, PaCO2 3.0 kPa. Name the primary disorder and the role of the low PaCO2.

Primary metabolic acidosis; low PaCO2 is respiratory compensation.

Common misconception That a low PaCO2 means respiratory alkalosis

Bicarbonate is 20 mEq/L with a metabolic acidosis. What PaCO2 does the compensation formula predict, and how do you handle kPa values?

1.5 × 20 + 8 = 38 (± 2) mmHg; convert kPa first (5.3 kPa = 40 mm Hg).

Report a problem with entry 27: Low pH, low bicarbonate and low PaCO2: metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

Part 2028 / 68

Large volumes of 0.9% saline cause hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

If a metabolic acidosis with high chloride follows large volumes of normal saline, blame the saline. Use balanced crystalloids for large-volume resuscitation.

Why

Large volumes of saline raise plasma chloride and produce a hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis. This acidosis sits in the extracellular fluid, not inside cells. It pushes potassium out of cells, so plasma potassium rises. In trials, balanced solutions that contain potassium did not cause hyperkalaemia. Sources differ on how much the acidosis matters. Miller's calls its physiological significance unclear and its link to kidney injury unproven. A paediatric guideline says it can worsen outcome. Either way, both favour balanced crystalloids when large volumes are needed.

The trap

Lactic acidosis from hypoperfusion. Lactic acidosis is tempting after major haemorrhage, massive transfusion and liver surgery, where poor perfusion seems the obvious cause. But a clearly raised chloride after many litres of saline marks a hyperchloraemic acidosis. Blaming hypoperfusion ignores the chloride, and no raised lactate is there to support it.

Evidence

Large volumes of normal saline cause hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, so they should be avoided. The acidosis drives potassium out of cells, causing hyperkalaemia. Balanced salt solution is probably the better choice. How much the extracellular acidosis matters clinically is still uncertain.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 34-year-old receives 6 litres of 0.9% saline in major surgery. Afterwards chloride is high and pH is low, with a normal lactate. Which acid-base disorder explains this?

Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis from large-volume normal saline.

A 70-year-old needs several litres of crystalloid for ongoing haemorrhage, and the surgeon assumes the acidosis is hypoperfusion. Which fluid type is preferred?

Balanced crystalloid; saline-related acidosis is not hypoperfusion lactic acidosis.

Common misconception That acidosis after massive resuscitation is always lactic from poor perfusion

Report a problem with entry 28: Large volumes of 0.9% saline cause hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

Part 2029 / 68

Normal anion gap (hyperchloraemic) acidosis: gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss (diarrhoea, fistula) and renal tubular acidosis

Normal-gap acidosis means bicarbonate lost from gut (diarrhoea, fistula, drains) or kidney (renal tubular acidosis) or saline load; added unmeasured acids widen the gap.

Why

The anion gap is sodium minus chloride and bicarbonate; Miller's form adds potassium to sodium, with its own normal range. If bicarbonate itself is lost, through the bowel or through failed renal handling, chloride takes its place. The sum stays the same, so the gap stays normal and the picture is hyperchloraemic. Ketoacids or lactate are different: they add unmeasured anions that use up bicarbonate without raising chloride, so the gap widens. Cachexia causes ketosis. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, severe asthma and severe anaemia cause lactate build-up.

The trap

Cachexia as bicarbonate-losing normal-gap acidosis. Cachexia sounds like a wasting, 'loss' state, so it seems to fit with bicarbonate depletion from diarrhoea. In fact starvation produces ketoacids. These are unmeasured anions that widen the gap, so cachexia belongs with ketoacidosis, not with gut or renal bicarbonate loss.

Evidence

Textbook tables list diarrhoea, urinary diversion, gut fistulas and drains, and renal tubular acidosis as normal-gap causes, where bicarbonate is excreted or saline is given. Cachexia-related ketoacidosis and lactic acidosis from neuroleptic malignant syndrome, severe asthma or anaemia raise the gap.

Sources: Barash 9eMayo reviewMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Severe diarrhoea and a gut fistula, pH 7.2, low bicarbonate, high chloride. Is the anion gap normal or wide, and why?

Normal; lost bicarbonate is replaced by chloride, so the sum is unchanged.

Which is NOT a normal anion gap acidosis: diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, gut fistula, cachexia?

The odd one out · Cachexia; starvation ketoacids are unmeasured anions that widen the gap.

Common misconception That cachexia, as a loss state, causes normal-gap acidosis

Report a problem with entry 29: Normal anion gap (hyperchloraemic) acidosis: gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss (diarrhoea, fistula) and renal tubular acidosis

Part 2030 / 68

Raised anion gap acidosis: advanced renal failure (retained fixed acids), ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis and toxins

Raised gap means unmeasured anions accumulate: lactate (severe anaemia, shock), ketones, toxins, or fixed acids in severe renal failure; bicarbonate-loss states give a normal gap.

Why

The gap widens only when an unmeasured acid anion replaces bicarbonate. Severe anaemia or shock raises lactate; diabetes, alcohol or cachexia produce ketoacids; methanol, ethylene glycol and salicylate add their own anions. Renal failure depends on severity: Mayo counts acute and chronic failure as high-gap, Barash files lesser insufficiency under normal-gap bicarbonate loss, and Miller shows the gap appears once failure is severe enough to retain sulphate and phosphate. Pure bicarbonate loss adds no new anion, whether from the gut, a urinary diversion or recovering ketosis.

The trap

ATN assumed always high-gap. ATN is tempting because renal failure appears in every high-gap list. But the gap rises only when failure is severe enough to retain fixed acids. Lesser renal insufficiency is classed as normal-gap bicarbonate loss. Severe anaemia, through lactate, is listed as high-gap without qualification.

Evidence

Barash lists severe anaemia among the lactic causes of a raised gap. It places urinary diversion, renal insufficiency and ketosis recovery under normal gap. Miller attributes renal acidosis to unexcreted fixed acids in severe failure. Mayo adds toxins such as methanol and salicylates.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 45-year-old in shock has pH 7.20, low bicarbonate and a raised anion gap. Name the likely unmeasured anion and two other high-gap causes.

Lactate; also ketoacids, toxins such as methanol or salicylate, or fixed acids in severe renal failure

Which is the odd one out as a cause of normal-gap acidosis, rather than raised gap: urinary diversion, ketosis recovery, severe anaemia, or mild renal insufficiency?

The odd one out · Severe anaemia, through lactate, raises the gap; the others are bicarbonate-loss, normal-gap states

Common misconception That any renal impairment such as ATN always raises the anion gap

Report a problem with entry 30: Raised anion gap acidosis: advanced renal failure (retained fixed acids), ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis and toxins

Part 2031 / 68

Low pH, low bicarbonate and a PaCO2 above the expected compensation: mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

In metabolic acidosis, predicted PaCO2 (mm Hg) = 1.5 × HCO3 + 8; a higher measured PaCO2 indicates coexisting respiratory acidosis (mixed disorder).

Why

When bicarbonate falls, the chemoreceptors drive up ventilation, so PaCO2 should fall by a predictable amount. If PaCO2 is normal or raised despite a low bicarbonate, the lungs are not clearing carbon dioxide. That retained carbon dioxide is a second acid load on top of the metabolic one, not compensation for it. Convert a PaCO2 given in kPa to mm Hg before you compare it with the predicted value. A value near the normal range can still sit well above the predicted one.

The trap

Simple metabolic acidosis with compensation. Low pH with low bicarbonate indicates metabolic acidosis, and the lungs are often assumed to be compensating. However, compensation must lower PaCO2 to the predicted value. A normal or raised PaCO2 despite this bicarbonate means compensation has failed, indicating a coexisting respiratory acidosis.

Evidence

Winter's formula gives the PaCO2 you should expect in metabolic acidosis. A measured PaCO2 above it means compensation is inadequate and there is a respiratory problem as well. Example: lactic acidosis from haemorrhage plus respiratory acidosis from a flail chest.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
PH 7.15, HCO3 12 mmol/L, PaCO2 40 mm Hg after a chest injury. Predicted PaCO2 is 26. What does the measured value indicate?

Coexisting respiratory acidosis: a mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis.

A low bicarbonate acidosis shows a normal PaCO2. A colleague calls it fully compensated metabolic acidosis. What is wrong with that view?

Compensation should lower PaCO2 to 1.5 × HCO3 + 8; a normal value means failed compensation.

Common misconception That a normal PaCO2 means the lungs are compensating

Report a problem with entry 31: Low pH, low bicarbonate and a PaCO2 above the expected compensation: mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

Part 2032 / 68

Anion gap: sodium minus (chloride plus bicarbonate), normal under 13 (Barash); with potassium added, normal 4 to 11 (Miller)

Anion gap = sodium − (chloride + bicarbonate), normal <13; if potassium is added, use 4–11. Always match formula to range.

Why

The gap stands for anions the lab does not measure, mainly phosphate, sulphate and anionic proteins. Barash's blood-gas table leaves potassium out. Miller puts potassium with sodium, which raises the result by about the potassium value, so its normal range differs. Organic acids such as ketoacids or lactate use up bicarbonate and add unmeasured anions, so the gap widens. A chloride load lowers bicarbonate but leaves the gap normal. Either formula detects a raised gap if you judge it against its own range.

The trap

Subtracting potassium, omitting bicarbonate. This figure comes from subtracting both chloride and potassium from sodium and leaving bicarbonate out. Bicarbonate is always subtracted. Potassium is a cation and, if used at all, is added to sodium, which raises the gap by roughly its value and never lowers it.

Evidence

Barash's stepwise blood-gas approach subtracts chloride and bicarbonate from sodium, with a normal value below 13. Miller adds potassium to sodium and quotes a normal of 4 to 11. The gap reflects unmeasured anions, which rise with ketoacid or lactate accumulation.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Sodium 140, chloride 104, bicarbonate 14 mmol/l, potassium not used. Calculate the anion gap and say whether it is normal.

22; raised, as normal is under 13.

A colleague calculates the gap as sodium minus chloride and potassium, leaving out bicarbonate. Which formula is right, and which normal range applies if potassium is added?

Subtract chloride plus bicarbonate; with potassium added, normal is 4 to 11.

Common misconception That potassium is subtracted and bicarbonate left out

Report a problem with entry 32: Anion gap: sodium minus (chloride plus bicarbonate), normal under 13 (Barash); with potassium added, normal 4 to 11 (Miller)

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Part 2 · RecognitionThe ECG and the electrolytes

  1. 033Torsades, a long QT or ventricular ectopy under anaesthesia: low magnesium, potassium or calcium; with potassium and magnesium normal, calcium
  2. 034Hypokalaemia on the ECG: U waves with an apparently long QT, ST depression and flat T waves
Part 2033 / 68

Torsades, a long QT or ventricular ectopy under anaesthesia: low magnesium, potassium or calcium; with potassium and magnesium normal, calcium

Torsades or a long QT: suspect low magnesium, potassium or calcium, never high potassium; give magnesium; if potassium and magnesium are normal, hypocalcaemia.

Why

Every cause here is a deficiency. Low magnesium raises the risk of ectopic beats and of ventricular tachycardia, fibrillation and torsades, and you correct it by giving magnesium. Low potassium is the other electrolyte trigger for torsades, alongside drugs and ischaemia. Low calcium lengthens the ST segment and so the QT, while excess calcium shortens it. Magnesium also controls calcium: hypocalcaemia caused by magnesium loss only corrects once magnesium is replaced. So when both are low, magnesium is the primary fault.

The trap

Hyperkalaemia as the arrhythmia cause. Potassium is the first thought for any arrhythmia under anaesthesia, so excess potassium feels plausible. But torsades and a long QT come from deficiencies: low magnesium, low potassium or low calcium. Once potassium and magnesium are normal, low calcium is the cause left.

Evidence

One text links low magnesium to ectopy, ventricular tachycardia, fibrillation and torsades, and treats it by giving magnesium. Another lists low potassium and low magnesium as torsades triggers. Low calcium lengthens the QT. Hypocalcaemia from magnesium depletion is treated by replacing magnesium.

Sources: Mayo reviewFaustBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 62-year-old develops a long QT and torsades under anaesthesia. Which electrolytes do you suspect, and which one do you give?

Low magnesium, potassium or calcium; give magnesium.

Frequent ventricular ectopy and a long QT, with a hyperkalaemia suspicion. Potassium and magnesium are normal. Which electrolyte is left to check?

Calcium: hypocalcaemia lengthens the QT; high potassium is not the cause.

Common misconception That excess potassium causes torsades and a long QT

Report a problem with entry 33: Torsades, a long QT or ventricular ectopy under anaesthesia: low magnesium, potassium or calcium; with potassium and magnesium normal, calcium

Part 2034 / 68

Hypokalaemia on the ECG: U waves with an apparently long QT, ST depression and flat T waves

In severe hypokalaemia, expect U waves fused with flattened T waves (mimicking long QT) and ST depression; PR and QRS changes come later.

Why

Low potassium impairs ventricular repolarisation: the T wave shrinks and a U wave grows. The flattened T fuses with the U wave, so the measured QT is really a QU interval. Miller lists QT prolongation, while Faust shows this lengthening is often only apparent because of TU fusion. Both agree on the trace's appearance. ST depression accompanies these changes. PR lengthening and QRS widening occur only in severe depletion, followed by arrhythmias. Hyperkalaemia causes the same two changes, so they do not distinguish the two.

The trap

QRS widening as the hallmark. End-stage renal disease brings hyperkalaemia to mind, whose hallmark is QRS widening towards a sine wave. Here the potassium is low. In hypokalaemia, QRS widening comes late, after T flattening and U waves, so it is neither the defining nor the expected finding.

Evidence

Miller lists T flattening, QT prolongation, U waves and ST depression in severe hypokalaemia. Faust explains that the long QT is often a flattened T merged into a U wave. Mayo puts PR lengthening and QRS widening after these early signs.

Sources: Miller 10eFaustMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A patient on loop diuretics has potassium 2.4 mmol/L. Describe the expected early ECG findings.

U waves fused with flat T waves, apparent long QT, ST depression.

In a hypokalaemic patient, is QRS widening the defining ECG feature, and when does it appear?

No; QRS widening and PR lengthening come late, in severe depletion.

Common misconception That QRS widening is the hallmark of hypokalaemia

Report a problem with entry 34: Hypokalaemia on the ECG: U waves with an apparently long QT, ST depression and flat T waves

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Part 3 · SituationsSyndrome of transurethral prostate resection (TURP syndrome)

  1. 035Cause of hypotension refractory to ephedrine during TURP with glycine irrigation under spinal anaesthesia
  2. 036Confusion, seizures or unresponsiveness after TURP or hysteroscopic surgery: measure the serum sodium first
  3. 037Transient blindness after TURP with glycine irrigation is glycine toxicity
  4. 038Absorbed glycine irrigation causes dilutional hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality: the cause of confusion after TURP
  5. 039TURP syndrome with symptomatic hyponatraemia during surgery: notify the surgeon and stop the procedure; 3% saline no faster than 100 mL/h
Part 3035 / 68

Cause of hypotension refractory to ephedrine during TURP with glycine irrigation under spinal anaesthesia

TURP syndrome should be suspected when hypotension persists despite ephedrine during glycine TURP under spinal: hyponatraemia shifts fluid out of vessels and depresses the myocardium.

Why

Hypotonic glycine enters the circulation through opened prostatic veins. At first the extra volume raises blood pressure. Then the falling sodium and osmolality push water out of the vessels into the tissues, so the patient becomes effectively hypovolaemic. At the same time the heart muscle is depressed, which shows as a broad QRS and arrhythmias, and the spinal block has removed sympathetic compensation. A vasopressor given for block-related vasodilatation cannot restore a circulation that is leaking and driven by a failing heart, so the pressure stays low.

The trap

Bladder perforation. Perforation does cause hypotension, so it looks plausible. But under spinal the patient is awake, and perforation usually shows itself with suprapubic, periumbilical, inguinal or shoulder-tip pain. Its effect on blood pressure also varies, and it can cause hypertension. Refractory hypotension without pain fits the sodium-driven syndrome better.

Evidence

The sources attribute TURP-syndrome hypotension to third spacing from hyponatraemia and low osmolality, following early hypertension, with depressed cardiac function and sympathetic blockade. Absorbed irrigant masks the usual signs of bleeding, and perforation in an awake patient presents with pain.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 68-year-old has glycine TURP under spinal. BP stays low despite repeated ephedrine, with a broad QRS and no pain. Likely cause?

TURP syndrome: hyponatraemia shifts fluid out of vessels and depresses the myocardium.

Awake patient under spinal, refractory hypotension during glycine TURP, no suprapubic or shoulder-tip pain. Is bladder perforation the leading cause?

Unlikely; awake perforation causes pain, so painless refractory hypotension suggests TURP syndrome.

Common misconception That bladder perforation is the usual cause of refractory hypotension in TURP

Report a problem with entry 35: Cause of hypotension refractory to ephedrine during TURP with glycine irrigation under spinal anaesthesia

Part 3036 / 68

Confusion, seizures or unresponsiveness after TURP or hysteroscopic surgery: measure the serum sodium first

New confusion, restlessness, visual change, seizures or unresponsiveness after TURP or hysteroscopy means irrigant hyponatraemia until disproved: check sodium on electrolytes or blood gas first.

Why

Sodium-free irrigating fluid absorbed during resection dilutes plasma sodium and lowers osmolality, so water moves into brain tissue. The cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure that follow cause confusion, agitation, visual upset, seizures and falling consciousness. How fast the sodium drops matters as much as how low it goes. Other metabolic causes can look the same, so electrolytes, glucose and a blood gas are sent together. The sodium result is what confirms irrigant absorption and guides correction.

The trap

Urgent CT head for stroke or bleed. Seizures with visual disturbance suggest stroke or intracranial bleed, so a scan seems thorough. Here the cause is metabolic: absorbed irrigant has diluted plasma sodium, which a scan cannot measure. A blood sodium confirms the diagnosis and directs treatment immediately.

Evidence

The texts link absorbed sodium-free irrigant to confusion, agitation, visual disturbance and seizures through cerebral oedema from hyponatraemia. When TURP syndrome is suspected, they advise measuring plasma sodium and osmolality and drawing electrolytes, glucose and arterial blood gases together.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Forty minutes after TURP, a 68-year-old man is agitated and disorientated, then reports blurred vision and has a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the first investigation?

Serum sodium, with electrolytes, glucose and blood gas, for irrigant hyponatraemia

After hysteroscopic resection, a 52-year-old woman has a seizure and visual upset. Her team requests an urgent CT head before any blood tests. Why is this misdirected?

Cause is metabolic: absorbed irrigant dilutes sodium, which a scan cannot measure

Common misconception That seizures with visual disturbance mean stroke or bleed, so a scan comes first

Report a problem with entry 36: Confusion, seizures or unresponsiveness after TURP or hysteroscopic surgery: measure the serum sodium first

Part 3037 / 68

Transient blindness after TURP with glycine irrigation is glycine toxicity

Transient visual loss after transurethral resection with glycine irrigant is glycine toxicity; poorly reactive pupils indicate a retinal, not cortical or vascular, cause.

Why

Glycine soaks into the circulation through opened prostatic venous channels. It is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, and it suppresses retinal ganglion cell activity. The resulting blindness comes from the retina, so the pupillary light reflex becomes sluggish or absent. When vision fails from a central process, such as cerebral oedema in hyponatraemia or a cortical lesion, the light reflex pathway still works and the pupils react normally. A large absorbed load may also cause encephalopathy, partly from ammonia released as glycine is broken down.

The trap

Embolic or ischaemic cortical blindness. An elderly smoker with hypertension and a recent coronary stent invites thinking of an embolic or ischaemic cortical event. But cortical blindness leaves pupillary reflexes intact. Visual loss straight after resection with glycine, with poorly reacting pupils, is a retinal effect of the irrigant.

Evidence

Absorbed glycine is named as the likely cause of transient blindness after prostate resection. It is thought to act on retinal ganglion cells as an inhibitory transmitter. Pupils are sluggish or unreactive, unlike central causes of visual loss, where light reflexes persist.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 72-year-old man loses vision 40 minutes into a TURP using glycine irrigation. Pupils react sluggishly to light. What is the likely cause and its site?

Absorbed glycine toxicity acting on the retina, not the cortex.

Same patient, a smoker with hypertension and a recent coronary stent, loses vision after resection. Pupils are poorly reactive. Do you suspect a cortical embolic infarct?

No. Cortical blindness spares pupillary reflexes; sluggish pupils point to retinal glycine effect.

Common misconception That sudden visual loss in a vascular patient means a cortical ischaemic event

Report a problem with entry 37: Transient blindness after TURP with glycine irrigation is glycine toxicity

Part 3038 / 68

Absorbed glycine irrigation causes dilutional hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality: the cause of confusion after TURP

After glycine-irrigated TURP, new confusion or agitation means absorbed sodium-free fluid. Expect low serum sodium and low osmolality. Do not blame bleeding or the block.

Why

Monopolar diathermy needs an irrigant that does not conduct electricity and has no electrolytes, such as glycine. This hypotonic fluid enters the circulation through opened prostatic venous channels. It adds water but no sodium, so serum sodium and osmolality both fall. Water then moves into brain tissue, causing cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. The result is restlessness, confusion, visual upset and seizures. Glycine, an inhibitory transmitter, and its breakdown product ammonia make the neurological picture worse. Severe absorption can also cause circulatory collapse.

The trap

Haemorrhage from hypotension and tachycardia. Low blood pressure, a fast heart rate and a low haemoglobin look like haemorrhage. But bleeding does not drop serum sodium sharply or cause early confusion. Profound hyponatraemia with agitation after glycine irrigation points to absorbed irrigant, which can itself cause cardiovascular collapse.

Evidence

Hypotonic, sodium-free irrigants such as glycine can be absorbed through exposed prostatic veins, causing hyponatraemia and fluid overload. The acute fall in sodium and osmolality causes cerebral oedema. Restlessness and confusion are early warning signs, not signs of inadequate anaesthesia.

Sources: Miller 10eOutside our books: Acute severe iatrogenic hyponatremia (2019)Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 68-year-old becomes restless and confused 40 minutes into glycine-irrigated TURP under spinal. Which sodium and osmolality results do you expect?

Low serum sodium and low osmolality from absorbed irrigant.

After TURP with glycine, a patient is hypotensive, tachycardic and agitated, with low haemoglobin and sodium 112 mmol/L. Is this simply haemorrhage?

No; absorbed glycine irrigant, which can itself cause cardiovascular collapse.

Common misconception That hypotension and tachycardia after TURP mean haemorrhage

Report a problem with entry 38: Absorbed glycine irrigation causes dilutional hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality: the cause of confusion after TURP

Part 3039 / 68

TURP syndrome with symptomatic hyponatraemia during surgery: notify the surgeon and stop the procedure; 3% saline no faster than 100 mL/h

Intraoperative TURP syndrome: first tell the surgeon to stop resecting; if symptomatic with sodium below 120, give 3% saline no faster than 100 mL/h.

Why

While resection continues, hypotonic irrigant keeps entering the circulation, so no sodium infusion can keep up until the surgeon stops. After that, treatment aims to restore extracellular tonicity. Barash and Faust use hypertonic saline only for symptomatic patients below 120. Faust caps it at a fixed hourly rate. Miller gives a weight-based starting rate of 1 mL/kg/h for moderate symptoms such as confusion and nausea, then rechecks. The safe approach under both is to start with the weight-based rate, never go above the fixed cap, and recheck sodium.

The trap

Hypertonic saline at twice the maximum rate, started at once. It names the right fluid for a symptomatic patient with very low sodium, so it looks like definitive treatment. But it is twice the recommended maximum rate. It also skips the first step: irrigant keeps being absorbed until the surgeon stops.

Evidence

Barash's first step is to tell the surgeon so the operation can be finished or stopped quickly. It reserves hypertonic saline for symptomatic patients with sodium below 120. Faust limits 3% saline to 100 mL/h. Miller starts moderate symptomatic cases at 1 mL/kg/h.

Sources: Barash 9eFaustMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
During TURP under spinal, a 71-year-old becomes confused and nauseated. Sodium is 117 mmol/L. What is your first action, before any infusion?

Tell the surgeon to stop resecting, since irrigant absorption continues until then.

The surgeon has stopped. The same symptomatic patient has sodium below 120. A colleague proposes hypertonic saline, 3%, at a rate of 200 mL per hour. Is that acceptable?

No. Give 3% saline no faster than 100 mL/h and recheck sodium.

Common misconception That faster hypertonic saline is better when sodium is very low

Report a problem with entry 39: TURP syndrome with symptomatic hyponatraemia during surgery: notify the surgeon and stop the procedure; 3% saline no faster than 100 mL/h

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Part 3 · SituationsThe anhepatic phase and graft reperfusion

  1. 040Citrate intoxication, as occurs in the anhepatic stage of a liver transplant: ionised calcium falls, giving hypotension with a narrow pulse pressure, raised CVP and LVEDP and a long QT; acidosis and hypomagnesaemia build
  2. 041Reperfusion opens the neohepatic phase of liver transplantation: cold, acidotic, hyperkalaemic effluent causes hypotension, metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia (post-reperfusion syndrome)
  3. 042Unclamping a kidney graft: hypotension from volume lost into the graft and vasodilating chemicals washed out of ischaemic tissue; sudden hyperkalaemia can arrest the heart
Part 3040 / 68

Citrate intoxication, as occurs in the anhepatic stage of a liver transplant: ionised calcium falls, giving hypotension with a narrow pulse pressure, raised CVP and LVEDP and a long QT; acidosis and hypomagnesaemia build

In every anhepatic phase, uncleared citrate and lactate bring hypocalcaemia and acidosis; hypotension depends on bicaval clamping or on citrate lowering calcium during rapid transfusion.

Why

Citrate in transfused blood binds ionised calcium, and the liver normally metabolises both citrate and lactate. With the liver out of circulation, neither is cleared, so hypocalcaemia, acidosis and hypomagnesaemia follow in every case. Hypotension is conditional. A bicaval approach cuts venous return and cardiac output. Rapid transfusion lowers ionised calcium enough to give the signs of citrate toxicity: hypotension with a narrow pulse pressure, raised CVP and LVEDP, and a long QT. Liver disease and liver transplantation raise this risk.

The trap

Hypovolaemia with low CVP. Hypotension during a bleeding transplant usually means hypovolaemia, where CVP falls, so a low CVP feels natural. Citrate toxicity behaves differently: its recognised signs pair hypotension and a narrow pulse pressure with a raised CVP and LVEDP, not a low one.

Evidence

Citrate in rapidly transfused blood binds ionised calcium; signs include hypotension, narrow pulse pressure, raised LVEDP and CVP and a prolonged QT. Without the liver, citrate and lactate are not metabolised, causing acidosis, hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia. Bicaval clamping can reduce venous return.

Sources: FaustMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
During the anhepatic phase with rapid transfusion, a 52-year-old has hypotension, narrow pulse pressure, CVP 16 mmHg and long QT. What is the cause and the treatment target?

Citrate toxicity binding ionised calcium; restore ionised calcium.

A 47-year-old is hypotensive and bleeding at liver transplant. CVP is low, so hypovolaemia is assumed. Which finding would instead point to citrate toxicity?

Raised CVP and LVEDP with narrow pulse pressure, not a low CVP.

Common misconception That hypotension with bleeding always means low CVP

Report a problem with entry 40: Citrate intoxication, as occurs in the anhepatic stage of a liver transplant: ionised calcium falls, giving hypotension with a narrow pulse pressure, raised CVP and LVEDP and a long QT; acidosis and hypomagnesaemia build

Part 3041 / 68

Reperfusion opens the neohepatic phase of liver transplantation: cold, acidotic, hyperkalaemic effluent causes hypotension, metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia (post-reperfusion syndrome)

Graft reperfusion opens the neohepatic phase. Expect metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia and hypotension; do not expect alkalosis or hypokalaemia.

Why

When the portal vein clamp is released, cold blood loaded with acid and potassium flows from the graft into the central circulation. Hydrogen ion and potassium levels rise suddenly, preload increases and core temperature falls. This can cause arrhythmias, right heart strain or even arrest. If hypotension persists after recirculation, it is called the post-reperfusion syndrome. It is mainly caused by systemic vasodilation, and sometimes by myocardial depression.

The trap

Hypocalcaemia as the reperfusion change. Hypocalcaemia is a genuine transplant derangement, and calcium chloride is given at reperfusion, so it feels right. But low ionised calcium comes from citrate in transfused products while the liver is absent; at reperfusion calcium is given to counter potassium, and the defining new change is acid load.

Evidence

The neohepatic stage begins when the graft is reperfused through the portal vein. Cold, acidotic, hyperkalaemic blood enters the circulation, so potassium, hydrogen ions and preload all rise. Persistent hypotension after this, the postreperfusion syndrome, is mostly vasodilatory and occasionally due to myocardial depression.

Sources: Miller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Soon after the portal vein clamp is released in a liver transplant, blood pressure drops and serum potassium rises. Which phase has begun, and what acid-base change accompanies the potassium rise?

Neohepatic phase: metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia from cold, acidotic, potassium-rich effluent

Which is NOT expected at graft reperfusion: metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, hypotension, or hypocalcaemia as the defining new change?

The odd one out · Hypocalcaemia as the defining change; the new insult is acid and potassium load

Common misconception That hypocalcaemia is the defining derangement of reperfusion

Report a problem with entry 41: Reperfusion opens the neohepatic phase of liver transplantation: cold, acidotic, hyperkalaemic effluent causes hypotension, metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia (post-reperfusion syndrome)

Part 3042 / 68

Unclamping a kidney graft: hypotension from volume lost into the graft and vasodilating chemicals washed out of ischaemic tissue; sudden hyperkalaemia can arrest the heart

Hypotension after a kidney graft is unclamped comes from vasodilator mediators washing out and from blood filling the graft. Be ready for hyperkalaemic cardiac arrest.

Why

During ischaemia the clamped graft builds up vasoactive metabolites while its vessels hold only preservative fluid. When the clamps come off, the graft's vascular bed fills suddenly and takes up to 300 mL out of the circulation. At the same moment, vasodilating substances, preservative solution and venous blood from the legs enter the systemic circulation. Preload and systemic vascular resistance fall together, so the patient becomes hypotensive with a reflex tachycardia. A sudden potassium load reaching the heart can cause cardiac arrest.

The trap

Embolism from leg venous blood. Venous blood from the legs does enter the circulation when the clamps come off, so an embolus sounds possible. But this collapse happens predictably at the moment of declamping, and graft filling plus vasodilator washout explain it. Embolism is not the expected mechanism.

Evidence

Hypotension after unclamping is explained by a sudden increase in intravascular capacity of up to 300 mL and by vasodilating chemicals released from tissue that was ischaemic. Cardiac arrest when the clamp is released is most likely caused by sudden hyperkalaemia.

Sources: Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Minutes after the clamps are released on a transplanted kidney, a 38-year-old becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. What two mechanisms explain this?

Vasodilator mediators washing out of ischaemic tissue, and blood filling the graft's vascular bed.

At declamping of a kidney graft, the ECG widens and the patient arrests. Which electrolyte disturbance should you anticipate, and is embolism the expected cause?

Sudden hyperkalaemia; embolism is not the expected mechanism.

Common misconception That leg venous blood entering the circulation causes an embolus and collapse at declamping

Report a problem with entry 42: Unclamping a kidney graft: hypotension from volume lost into the graft and vasodilating chemicals washed out of ischaemic tissue; sudden hyperkalaemia can arrest the heart

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Part 3 · SituationsLate problems after surgery and feeding

  1. 043Jaundice three weeks after surgery: halothane hepatitis or parenteral nutrition, not benign postoperative jaundice
  2. 044Abrupt stop of parenteral nutrition after weeks: the metabolic change
Part 3043 / 68

Jaundice three weeks after surgery: halothane hepatitis or parenteral nutrition, not benign postoperative jaundice

Jaundice appearing weeks after surgery outlasts benign postoperative cholestasis; think prolonged parenteral nutrition or volatile-agent hepatitis, not haemolysis or an unsuspected ligated bile duct.

Why

Benign postoperative cholestasis begins early and settles within 10 days, so jaundice weeks later needs another cause. Older reviews tie liver disease from parenteral nutrition to use beyond 14 days, and a later series found it can begin sooner, so a patient still fed intravenously fits at any point. The National Halothane Study tracked fatal hepatic necrosis within 6 weeks of a general anaesthetic, so volatile-agent hepatitis fits this timing too. Sickle haemolysis raises unconjugated bilirubin, and bile duct injury requires biliary surgery.

The trap

Ligated bile duct. Bile duct ligation tempts because bile duct injury appears among postoperative cholestatic causes. It fails because it needs an operation on the biliary tree, which this picture does not include.

Evidence

Benign postoperative jaundice begins early and resolves within 10 days. Parenteral nutrition liver disease is described with use beyond 14 days. Halothane hepatic necrosis was studied within 6 weeks of anaesthesia. Haemolysis produces unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

Sources: Outside our books: Review of parenteral nutrition-associated liver disease (2020)Barash 9eOutside our books: Parenteral Nutrition-Induced Liver Function Complications: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Prognosis (2025)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 60-year-old becomes jaundiced 3 weeks after abdominal surgery, having had intravenous nutrition throughout. Benign postoperative jaundice or something else?

Something else: parenteral nutrition liver disease or volatile-agent hepatitis; benign type settles within 10 days.

Jaundice appears weeks after an operation that did not involve the biliary tree. Does bile duct ligation fit, and why?

No. Bile duct injury needs biliary surgery.

Common misconception That bile duct ligation explains late jaundice after any surgery

Report a problem with entry 43: Jaundice three weeks after surgery: halothane hepatitis or parenteral nutrition, not benign postoperative jaundice

Part 3044 / 68

Abrupt stop of parenteral nutrition after weeks: the metabolic change

If parenteral nutrition is stopped suddenly after a long course, expect hypoglycaemia, not an electrolyte shift. Check blood glucose closely straight away.

Why

Parenteral nutrition gives a steady hypertonic glucose load into a central vein. The body responds with high insulin output, which is why high blood glucose is common during feeding and may need extra insulin. If the infusion stops abruptly, the glucose supply ends at once but the raised insulin level takes time to fall. For that period insulin keeps driving glucose into cells with nothing coming in to replace it, so blood glucose falls.

The trap

Potassium shift from sudden insulin fall. Stopping the glucose load does not make insulin fall straight away, so potassium does not shift out of cells. Insulin stays high after an abrupt stop, so the danger is falling glucose (hypoglycaemia).

Evidence

The source warns that stopping the infusion suddenly can cause hypoglycaemia, because the body's own insulin stays high for a while. It also notes that high glucose is common while feeding runs, so glucose needs monitoring throughout.

Sources: Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Parenteral nutrition, running for 3 weeks, is stopped abruptly before theatre. Which metabolic problem do you expect and check for at once?

Hypoglycaemia; check blood glucose closely straight away.

Why does glucose fall after the infusion stops suddenly, and is a potassium shift the main danger?

Insulin stays high while glucose supply ends; no, the danger is hypoglycaemia.

Common misconception That stopping feeding causes an electrolyte shift out of cells

Report a problem with entry 44: Abrupt stop of parenteral nutrition after weeks: the metabolic change

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsRenal blood flow, volume and the tubule

  1. 045Renal autoregulation: the mean arterial pressure range over which renal blood flow and GFR stay constant
  2. 046Atrial natriuretic peptide: released by atrial stretch, a vasodilator and natriuretic that lowers extracellular volume
  3. 047Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
  4. 048Lipid-soluble, un-ionised drugs and metabolites are reabsorbed passively in the distal tubule
  5. 049Tubular secretion: which ion the nephron secretes
Part 4045 / 68

Renal autoregulation: the mean arterial pressure range over which renal blood flow and GFR stay constant

Renal blood flow and GFR autoregulate over a classic plateau of about 80–180 mmHg mean renal arterial pressure; other quoted ranges describe the same curve.

Why

When pressure rises, the afferent arteriole constricts through a myogenic response. When pressure falls, it relaxes. Local feedback signals tune this tone, so glomerular capillary pressure and filtration barely change. The edges of the plateau are approximate, so books quote them differently. Miller's classic figure, from dog experiments, gives 80–180 mmHg. Miller's key-point summary rounds this to 60–160 mmHg mean pressure. Barash states it in systolic terms as 80–200 mmHg. All three describe the same curve. The figure value is the standard range for blood flow and GFR together.

The trap

A wider range starting at 50 mmHg. It looks like a safely wide range, and its lower limit sounds like the familiar cerebral autoregulation floor. But no renal source gives these limits. The classic kidney plateau starts near 80 mmHg, and even the lowest summary figure starts at 60.

Evidence

Miller's figure shows renal blood flow and filtration rate staying flat between roughly 80 and 180 mmHg. Its summary gives 60–160 mmHg mean pressure, and Barash gives about 80–200 mmHg systolic. Faust links the plateau to myogenic constriction of the afferent arteriole.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Over what approximate mean renal arterial pressure range do renal blood flow and GFR stay constant?

About 80 to 180 mmHg.

A 70-year-old's mean pressure is 70 mmHg during surgery. A colleague says renal autoregulation, like cerebral, still protects GFR down to 50 mmHg. Correct?

No. The classic renal plateau starts near 80 mmHg; even the lowest figure is 60.

Common misconception That renal autoregulation extends as low as 50 mmHg

Report a problem with entry 45: Renal autoregulation: the mean arterial pressure range over which renal blood flow and GFR stay constant

Part 4046 / 68

Atrial natriuretic peptide: released by atrial stretch, a vasodilator and natriuretic that lowers extracellular volume

Volume overload stretches the atria, releasing ANP, which vasodilates, raises GFR and sodium excretion, and suppresses renin, angiotensin II and aldosterone to shrink extracellular volume.

Why

ANP works against the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone axis. When the extracellular compartment expands, the atrial walls distend and the atrial myocytes secrete it. Acting through cyclic GMP, it relaxes vascular smooth muscle, so it lowers vascular resistance rather than raising it. In the kidney it increases filtration and blocks tubular sodium reabsorption. It also cuts renin release and aldosterone secretion, so less sodium and water are kept. Every response that reduces volume therefore goes the same way: ANP rises, while renin, angiotensin II and aldosterone fall.

The trap

Aldosterone rising to reduce volume. Aldosterone is the best-known volume hormone, so it comes to mind first. But it drives distal sodium and water retention, expanding extracellular volume. In hypervolaemia it is suppressed, partly by ANP. A rise in aldosterone therefore cannot be a volume-reducing compensation.

Evidence

Atrial distension and sodium load release ANP, which vasodilates via cyclic GMP, raises GFR, inhibits renin, opposes angiotensin II and lowers aldosterone. Hypervolaemia is corrected by increased ANP and a suppressed renin–angiotensin–aldosterone axis, all promoting natriuresis.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A patient is volume overloaded with distended atria. Which hormones rise and which fall in the compensating response?

ANP rises; renin, angiotensin II and aldosterone fall, promoting natriuresis.

Which is NOT a volume-reducing response to hypervolaemia: raised ANP, raised GFR, vasodilation, raised aldosterone?

The odd one out · Raised aldosterone; it retains sodium and water and is suppressed in hypervolaemia.

Common misconception That aldosterone rises to correct volume overload

Report a problem with entry 46: Atrial natriuretic peptide: released by atrial stretch, a vasodilator and natriuretic that lowers extracellular volume

Part 4047 / 68

Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule

Normally all filtered glucose is reclaimed in the proximal tubule; glycosuria means the reabsorptive capacity is overwhelmed or the proximal tubule is diseased.

Why

Glucose passes the glomerular filter freely, so the early filtrate carries the plasma glucose concentration. Proximal tubular cells take it back. At a normal filtered load they have spare capacity, so none reaches the urine. Glucose appears in urine only in two situations. In the first, the load exceeds what the tubule can reclaim, as in diabetes mellitus or during intravenous glucose infusion. In the second, proximal tubular function itself fails. Glucose is then lost alongside other proximally conserved solutes.

The trap

Sodium, as completely reabsorbed. Sodium is the solute the tubules reabsorb in the greatest quantity, so 'almost all' is easily mistaken for 'all'. However, the kidney always excretes some sodium, adjusted to match intake, so normal urine contains it. Normal urine contains no glucose.

Evidence

Glucose crosses the glomerulus freely and is taken back proximally. Its presence in urine shows that an excessive load has outstripped the tubules' ability to reabsorb it. In proximal tubular disease, glucose is lost together with potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, amino acids and water.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 30-year-old with normal blood glucose has glycosuria, with phosphate and amino acids also in the urine. Where is the defect?

The proximal tubule itself is diseased, losing glucose with other solutes.

Which solute is normally completely reabsorbed so that none appears in healthy urine: sodium, glucose or potassium?

Glucose, entirely reclaimed in the proximal tubule unless capacity is overwhelmed.

Common misconception That sodium is completely reabsorbed like glucose

Report a problem with entry 47: Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule

Part 4048 / 68

Lipid-soluble, un-ionised drugs and metabolites are reabsorbed passively in the distal tubule

Lipid-soluble drugs and metabolites are passively reabsorbed in the distal tubule, not reclaimed by carriers in the proximal tubule or loop of Henle.

Why

A lipophilic molecule can cross the tubular cell membranes on its own, without a transporter. After filtration or secretion, it diffuses back from tubular fluid into blood in the distal tubule. As a result, very little of it ends up in the urine. A water-soluble molecule cannot cross the membrane this way, so it relies on carrier proteins to be reabsorbed. Lipid solubility therefore decides whether reabsorption is passive and distal or carrier-dependent.

The trap

Proximal tubule carrier-mediated reabsorption. The proximal tubule is where most filtered substances are reclaimed and where drugs are actively secreted, so it seems the likely site. But the passive, lipid-driven reabsorption of drugs and their active forms takes place further along, in the distal tubule. Carrier-mediated reabsorption applies to water-soluble compounds.

Evidence

Two processes can reduce renal clearance of secreted drugs: passive reabsorption of lipophilic drugs and carrier-mediated reabsorption of hydrophilic ones. The small filtered and secreted amount of lipophilic drug is readily reabsorbed in the distal tubules, so its net renal clearance becomes negligible.

Sources: Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A highly lipophilic drug is filtered and secreted, yet almost none appears in the urine. Where along the nephron is it passively reabsorbed?

The distal tubule, by passive diffusion across the cell membranes.

A lipid-soluble active metabolite is being reabsorbed along the tubule. Is this by proximal tubule carriers or passive diffusion, and what would a water-soluble drug need?

Passive and distal; water-soluble drugs need carrier proteins for reabsorption.

Common misconception That the proximal tubule is where lipophilic drugs are reabsorbed

Report a problem with entry 48: Lipid-soluble, un-ionised drugs and metabolites are reabsorbed passively in the distal tubule

Part 4049 / 68

Tubular secretion: which ion the nephron secretes

The nephron secretes potassium and hydrogen ions, plus ammonia. Sodium moves the other way: the collecting duct takes it back up from the lumen.

Why

The sodium pump on the blood side keeps intracellular sodium low and potassium high. Sodium therefore enters from the lumen through channels and is pumped out, while potassium leaves the cell into the lumen through its own channels. Sodium enters without an accompanying anion, making the lumen negative relative to blood, which draws more potassium out. Aldosterone increases the activity of both the pump and the luminal potassium channels. Collecting ducts also actively secrete hydrogen ions and ammonia to maintain acid–base balance.

The trap

Sodium, as a secreted ion. Sodium is tempting because it always appears next to potassium in accounts of distal exchange. But it travels in the opposite direction. It enters the cell from the lumen and is reabsorbed, and that inward movement is what lets potassium be secreted.

Evidence

The texts say the collecting ducts actively secrete hydrogen ions and ammonia. Principal cells secrete potassium, driven by the sodium pump, a lumen-negative charge and aldosterone. Sodium is reabsorbed from the tubule.

Sources: FaustMiller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 58-year-old on a high-dose aldosterone-raising regimen develops hypokalaemia. Which ions does the collecting duct secrete into the lumen, and which does it take up?

Secretes potassium, hydrogen and ammonia; reabsorbs sodium from the lumen.

Collecting duct principal cells show lumen-negative potential. A trainee says sodium is secreted alongside potassium. Which direction does sodium actually move?

Sodium enters from the lumen and is reabsorbed; that inward flow drives potassium secretion.

Common misconception That sodium is secreted with potassium in the distal nephron

Report a problem with entry 49: Tubular secretion: which ion the nephron secretes

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsWho gets acute kidney injury

  1. 050Risk factors for acute kidney injury after noncardiac surgery: age, male sex, heart failure, hypertension, liver disease with ascites, CKD, emergency and intraperitoneal surgery
  2. 051Contrast-induced nephropathy: pre-existing chronic kidney disease is the main risk factor
  3. 052Complications after ruptured aortic aneurysm repair: death is the gravest outcome and renal failure is common
Part 4050 / 68

Risk factors for acute kidney injury after noncardiac surgery: age, male sex, heart failure, hypertension, liver disease with ascites, CKD, emergency and intraperitoneal surgery

Both books flag older age, heart failure, CKD and liver disease; for noncardiac surgery add male sex, hypertension, ascites, emergency and intraperitoneal surgery.

Why

The shared thread is a kidney with little reserve meeting poor perfusion. Miller, drawing on noncardiac cohorts, names male sex, symptomatic heart failure, hypertension, ascites, non-elective and intraperitoneal operations. Stoelting gives a generic perioperative list without sex, adding sepsis, diabetes, hypovolaemia and anaemia. These fit together: Stoelting is broad, Miller is setting-specific, and both name age, CKD, liver disease and heart failure. Female sex appears in cardiac-surgery indices instead. Both describe age only as advanced or increased; neither sets a fixed cut-off.

The trap

Female sex as a noncardiac AKI risk. Female sex is tempting because it appears among risk factors in cardiac-surgery AKI indices and in some perioperative stroke data. For noncardiac surgery the sex association runs the other way: Miller lists male sex, so the cardiac-surgery finding does not carry over.

Evidence

Miller lists, for noncardiac surgery, older age, male sex, symptomatic heart failure, hypertension, liver disease with ascites, CKD, PAD, COPD, non-elective and intraperitoneal surgery; cardiac indices include female sex. Stoelting's perioperative list adds sepsis, diabetes, hypovolaemia and anaemia but omits sex.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Emergency laparotomy is planned for a man aged 68 who has ascites and hypertension. Which postoperative AKI risk factors does he carry besides age?

Male sex, hypertension, ascites, emergency and intraperitoneal surgery.

Which is the odd one out as an AKI risk factor after noncardiac surgery: CKD, heart failure, liver disease, female sex?

The odd one out · Female sex; it is a cardiac-surgery index factor, while male sex applies here.

Common misconception That female sex raises AKI risk after noncardiac surgery

Report a problem with entry 50: Risk factors for acute kidney injury after noncardiac surgery: age, male sex, heart failure, hypertension, liver disease with ascites, CKD, emergency and intraperitoneal surgery

Part 4051 / 68

Contrast-induced nephropathy: pre-existing chronic kidney disease is the main risk factor

Pre-existing kidney disease is the strongest predictor of contrast nephropathy. Diabetes, hypertension and gout are real but lesser risk factors.

Why

Iodinated contrast harms the kidney through its load. The medium is viscous and puts oxidative stress on the proximal tubular cells, which is why limiting the dose and hydrating the patient help. A kidney that is already impaired has the least reserve to absorb that insult, so established kidney disease raises the risk about 20 times. Diabetes, hypertension, gout and nephrotoxic drugs add to the risk, but every source ranks them below existing renal impairment.

The trap

Diabetes as main risk factor. Diabetes is the best-known co-risk factor and often travels with kidney disease, so it feels like the main cause. The sources list it only as a secondary factor. Pre-existing renal impairment is ranked above all others and is the factor that really drives the risk.

Evidence

Barash names chronic kidney disease as the most important predictor, raising risk 20 times, and lists diabetes, hypertension and gout as lesser factors. KDIGO puts pre-existing renal impairment above every other factor. Miller pairs kidney disease with contrast load as the two main contributors.

Sources: Barash 9eOutside our books: KDIGO Clinical Practice Guideline for Acute Kidney Injury (2012)Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Before a contrast CT, which factor most strongly predicts nephropathy: diabetes, hypertension, gout or existing kidney disease? Roughly how much does it raise risk?

Existing kidney disease; it raises risk about 20 times.

Common misconception That diabetes is the main risk factor

A 70-year-old with known CKD needs iodinated contrast. Why is the kidney vulnerable, and which measures reduce injury?

Little reserve against contrast's tubular oxidative stress; limit the dose and hydrate.

Report a problem with entry 51: Contrast-induced nephropathy: pre-existing chronic kidney disease is the main risk factor

Part 4052 / 68

Complications after ruptured aortic aneurysm repair: death is the gravest outcome and renal failure is common

After repair of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, death is the likeliest and gravest outcome, at nearly 50% perioperatively. Renal failure is common but less frequent.

Why

Rupture means the patient arrives in haemorrhagic shock, and that shock drives the outcome. After elective repair, mortality fell steadily. After rupture, the operative death rate has barely moved in four decades, and counting those who die before reaching hospital, almost nobody survives. Among survivors the kidney is the organ most often injured. The main cause is haemodynamic instability. A long aortic clamp time and atheromatous emboli add ischaemic damage. So renal injury is several times commoner than after elective surgery, but it still happens less often than death.

The trap

Renal failure as the commonest outcome. It tempts because the kidney is the classic casualty of shock and aortic clamping, especially when the aneurysm is suprarenal. Renal injury does strike about a quarter of patients after rupture. But perioperative mortality approaches half, so death remains the more likely outcome.

Evidence

Perioperative mortality for ruptured aneurysm has stayed near 50% for four decades. Including pre-hospital deaths, it exceeds 90%. Kidney injury followed 26% of emergency repairs for rupture, against 4% after well-controlled elective repair.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 71-year-old arrives in haemorrhagic shock and undergoes emergency repair of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. Which complication is the likeliest and gravest, at nearly 50% perioperatively?

Death, with perioperative mortality near 50%.

After emergency rupture repair, a 66-year-old develops oliguria after a long clamp time. Renal failure is common, but is it the most likely adverse outcome overall?

No. Renal failure is common but less frequent than death.

Common misconception That renal failure is the most likely complication after ruptured aneurysm repair

Report a problem with entry 52: Complications after ruptured aortic aneurysm repair: death is the gravest outcome and renal failure is common

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsEnd-stage renal disease and dialysis

  1. 053What dialysis corrects in end-stage renal disease and what it does not
  2. 054The commonest finding just after haemodialysis
  3. 055Chronic kidney disease shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the right
  4. 056Renal failure prolongs neostigmine (half its clearance is renal); atracurium and cisatracurium are organ-independent
Part 4053 / 68

What dialysis corrects in end-stage renal disease and what it does not

After dialysis starts, insulin sensitivity and glucose tolerance improve. Hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadal amenorrhoea and established uraemic polyneuropathy do not reliably resolve.

Why

Retained uraemic toxins worsen peripheral insulin resistance. Dialysis removes some, such as guanidino compounds, so insulin sensitivity and glucose tolerance improve. Other problems are not toxin-driven: long-stimulated parathyroid glands become hyperplastic and secrete autonomously, and amenorrhoea results from hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal disruption that persists on dialysis. Stoelting's nerve chapter states haemodialysis does not reverse neuropathy, whereas transplantation improves conduction within days. Its renal chapter links any gain to baseline symptom severity, so mild symptoms may ease but established disease does not.

The trap

Dialysis reverses uraemic polyneuropathy. Uraemic polyneuropathy sounds toxin-driven, so clearing toxins seems bound to help, and some mild symptoms do ease. But haemodialysis does not reliably reverse established neuropathy. Nerve conduction recovers after transplantation, not dialysis, so dialysis cannot be counted on to improve it.

Evidence

A recent endocrine review reports better insulin sensitivity once dialysis begins, partly from clearing guanidino compounds. The same review describes self-sustaining parathyroid secretion and gonadal-axis disruption in dialysis patients. Stoelting says haemodialysis fails to reverse uraemic polyneuropathy, whereas transplantation improves nerve conduction.

Sources: Outside our books: Endocrine disorders linked to chronic kidney disease: Mechanisms and clinical implications (2026)Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 54-year-old starts haemodialysis. Within weeks her insulin doses fall and glucose tolerance improves. Which retained toxins are partly responsible for the earlier insulin resistance?

Uraemic toxins such as guanidino compounds, which dialysis removes

A man has had haemodialysis for 8 years with burning leg paraesthesia and absent ankle jerks. Will further dialysis reliably reverse the polyneuropathy, and what does improve conduction?

No; established neuropathy persists, and transplantation improves conduction

Common misconception That clearing uraemic toxins by dialysis reliably reverses established polyneuropathy

Report a problem with entry 53: What dialysis corrects in end-stage renal disease and what it does not

Part 4054 / 68

The commonest finding just after haemodialysis

Just after haemodialysis, expect two things together: an early blood sample reads hypokalaemic before potassium re-equilibrates, and the patient is acutely volume depleted.

Why

Dialysis clears potassium efficiently from plasma, but most body potassium sits inside cells. Immediately after a session the extracellular level is low while intracellular stores have not yet moved out to replace it, so an early sample reads hypokalaemic; the value rises as transcellular equilibration occurs. At the same time, the session removes fluid and shifts electrolytes between compartments, leaving the patient acutely volume depleted. Both are expected simultaneously: one is a laboratory reading, the other a haemodynamic state, which is why surgery right after dialysis is discouraged.

The trap

Anion-gap acidosis after dialysis. Anion-gap acidosis is the classic metabolic picture of end-stage renal failure, so it feels like the 'renal' answer. But it describes the patient between sessions, when retained acids accumulate; dialysis is what clears them, so it is not the expected finding immediately afterwards.

Evidence

One text explains that efficient dialytic potassium clearance, with most potassium held inside cells, makes an early post-dialysis sample suggest hypokalaemia before equilibration. Another advises against operating soon after dialysis because of acute volume depletion and electrolyte shifts, including potassium.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 59-year-old on dialysis is sampled shortly after a session ends. Which potassium reading and volume state do you expect?

Low potassium before re-equilibration, and acute volume depletion.

Shortly after a dialysis session in end-stage renal failure, is anion-gap metabolic acidosis the expected finding?

No. Acidosis is the between-session picture; dialysis clears retained acids.

Common misconception That anion-gap acidosis is the typical finding immediately after dialysis

Report a problem with entry 54: The commonest finding just after haemodialysis

Part 4055 / 68

Chronic kidney disease shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the right

In chronic kidney disease, expect a rightward oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, together with high potassium and high magnesium. Potassium and magnesium do not fall.

Why

Diseased kidneys make little erythropoietin and cannot excrete acid, so patients become anaemic and acidotic. They compensate for the low oxygen-carrying capacity in two ways: cardiac output rises, and the dissociation curve moves rightward. A right shift lowers haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, so tissues extract more oxygen at any given capillary partial pressure. The acidaemia adds to this through the Bohr effect. Failing excretion also lets the cations the kidney normally clears build up, so potassium and magnesium rise.

The trap

Hypomagnesaemia in renal failure. Magnesium disturbance is a familiar feature of renal disease, so remembering 'magnesium' without its direction makes low magnesium seem plausible. It fails because reduced filtration retains magnesium. The disorder is hypermagnesaemia, just as potassium shows hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia.

Evidence

The textbook's list of chronic kidney disease features includes raised potassium, magnesium and phosphate, low calcium and metabolic acidosis. It also lists anaemia with a raised cardiac output and a dissociation curve shifted to the right.

Sources: Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 62-year-old with chronic kidney disease, anaemic and acidotic, is listed for fistula surgery. Which way is the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifted?

To the right, lowering oxygen affinity so tissues extract more oxygen.

Which is the odd one out in chronic kidney disease: high potassium, high magnesium, low magnesium, right-shifted dissociation curve?

The odd one out · Low magnesium; reduced filtration retains it, giving hypermagnesaemia.

Common misconception That chronic kidney disease causes low magnesium

Report a problem with entry 55: Chronic kidney disease shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the right

Part 4056 / 68

Renal failure prolongs neostigmine (half its clearance is renal); atracurium and cisatracurium are organ-independent

In dialysis-dependent renal failure, expect neostigmine's action to last longer; atracurium and cisatracurium durations are unchanged because their breakdown bypasses the kidney.

Why

Roughly 50% of neostigmine's plasma clearance is renal. When the kidneys fail, its clearance drops and its elimination half-life lengthens substantially. Atracurium and cisatracurium break down mainly by spontaneous Hofmann degradation in plasma; atracurium is also broken down by ester hydrolysis. Little parent drug is left for the kidney to excrete, so their clearance, half-life and duration of block stay essentially the same in kidney failure.

The trap

Fentanyl's possibly longer half-life. Fentanyl is tempting because its elimination half-life can lengthen in chronic kidney disease. That change is only possible, though, and fentanyl leaves no active metabolites. Neostigmine reliably loses about half its clearance, so it is the drug whose action is predictably prolonged.

Evidence

Renal excretion handles about 50% of neostigmine clearance, and its half-life is clearly prolonged in anephric patients. Atracurium and cisatracurium undergo plasma degradation with minimal renal excretion, so their duration is unaffected by renal failure; fentanyl's half-life only may lengthen.

Sources: Miller 10eMayo reviewBarash 9eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A dialysis-dependent 55-year-old is given neostigmine to reverse a non-depolarising block. Does renal failure change how long its action lasts, and why?

Yes, it lasts longer; about half its clearance is renal.

Which is the odd one out in renal failure: neostigmine, atracurium, cisatracurium? Which duration is unchanged, and by what mechanism?

The odd one out · Neostigmine is odd one out; atracurium and cisatracurium break down independently of the kidney.

Common misconception That fentanyl's action is reliably prolonged in renal failure

Report a problem with entry 56: Renal failure prolongs neostigmine (half its clearance is renal); atracurium and cisatracurium are organ-independent

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsTumour lysis syndrome

  1. 057Tumour lysis syndrome: risk factors, LDH and the place of dexamethasone
  2. 058Tumour lysis syndrome: high potassium, phosphate and uric acid, with secondary hypocalcaemia
Part 4057 / 68

Tumour lysis syndrome: risk factors, LDH and the place of dexamethasone

In tumour lysis syndrome, dehydration raises risk, LDH is typically raised and flags risk, the syndrome is dangerous, and dexamethasone is avoided as an antiemetic.

Why

Rapid breakdown of a large tumour load floods the circulation with potassium, phosphate and uric acid, which the kidneys must clear. Dehydration, pre-existing renal damage and obstructive uropathy are co-morbidities that raise risk. Raised uric acid can itself cause acute renal failure. LDH generally tracks bulky disease and is a high-risk marker, so a high value indicates higher risk rather than excluding the syndrome. Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia can be fatal, so the syndrome is never benign. Anaesthetic teaching advises avoiding dexamethasone in at-risk oncology patients.

The trap

Dexamethasone as a harmless cheap antiemetic. Dexamethasone is a familiar, cheap antiemetic, so it seems harmless here. Anaesthesia texts advise steering clear of it in most cancer patients, particularly those at risk of this syndrome. So giving it here is unsafe.

Evidence

A haematology consensus lists dehydration among the co-morbidities that raise risk, and says LDH reflects bulky disease and is a high-risk factor. Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia can be life-threatening. An anaesthesia text advises avoiding dexamethasone in oncology patients at risk of the syndrome.

Sources: Outside our books: Consensus conference on the management of tumor lysis syndrome (2008)Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 58-year-old with bulky lymphoma starts chemotherapy, is dehydrated and has a raised LDH. Does the raised LDH reassure you, or flag higher risk of tumour lysis syndrome?

A high LDH reflects bulky disease and flags higher risk; it does not reassure.

A 45-year-old with leukaemia, at risk of tumour lysis syndrome, is having surgery. The team suggests dexamethasone for postoperative nausea. What do you advise?

Avoid dexamethasone as antiemetic in at-risk oncology patients; use another agent.

Common misconception That dexamethasone is a harmless, routine antiemetic here

Report a problem with entry 57: Tumour lysis syndrome: risk factors, LDH and the place of dexamethasone

Part 4058 / 68

Tumour lysis syndrome: high potassium, phosphate and uric acid, with secondary hypocalcaemia

In tumour lysis syndrome, potassium, phosphate and urate rise, and calcium falls secondarily. The electrolyte that falls is calcium; potassium rises.

Why

Chemotherapy or radiation suddenly destroys many tumour cells, and they release their intracellular contents: potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids that are metabolised to urate. The excess phosphate binds calcium and lowers its serum level, so hypocalcaemia follows the hyperphosphataemia. Urate crystals and calcium phosphate deposits damage the renal tubules, causing acute kidney injury. Renal failure then reduces potassium clearance, which raises the risk of dysrhythmia. The life-threatening pair is high potassium with low calcium.

The trap

Low potassium with low calcium. Potassium is a key electrolyte in this syndrome, so recognising 'potassium' alone makes low potassium seem plausible. The direction is wrong: lysed cells release intracellular potassium, which causes hyperkalaemia. Calcium is the only electrolyte that falls.

Evidence

Both textbooks describe a metabolic crisis after mass tumour cell destruction. Urate, potassium and phosphate rise, and phosphate drives calcium down. Renal failure follows urate crystal or calcium phosphate deposition, and renal dysfunction makes hyperkalaemic dysrhythmias more likely.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 9-year-old with Burkitt lymphoma has a seizure 36 hours after starting chemotherapy. Which electrolytes are expected: potassium, phosphate, urate high, and which one falls?

Calcium falls; potassium, phosphate and urate rise.

A 58-year-old with leukaemia, creatinine rising after chemotherapy, has a potassium of 2.9 mmol/L. Does this fit tumour lysis syndrome?

No. Lysis releases potassium, so hyperkalaemia is expected, not low potassium.

Common misconception That tumour lysis lowers potassium

Report a problem with entry 58: Tumour lysis syndrome: high potassium, phosphate and uric acid, with secondary hypocalcaemia

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsCirrhosis: circulation, lungs, portal pressure

  1. 059Cirrhosis: hyperdynamic circulation with high cardiac output, low systemic vascular resistance and high mixed venous saturation
  2. 060Liver disease with hypoxaemia: hepatopulmonary syndrome (intrapulmonary vasodilation, worse upright) and portopulmonary hypertension
  3. 061Hepatitis C cirrhosis with ascites, encephalopathy and coagulopathy: the leading cause of death
  4. 062Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS): decompresses the portal system; main indications are variceal bleeding and refractory ascites
Part 4059 / 68

Cirrhosis: hyperdynamic circulation with high cardiac output, low systemic vascular resistance and high mixed venous saturation

Cirrhosis is hyperdynamic: cardiac output and mixed venous saturation rise while SVR falls; treat hypotension with an alpha agonist, not milrinone.

Why

Cirrhosis causes splanchnic and systemic vasodilation through excess nitric oxide, prostacyclins, carbon monoxide and endocannabinoids. Resistance falls and the heart compensates by raising output. Arteriovenous shunts let blood bypass the tissue beds, so little oxygen is extracted and venous blood returns highly saturated. Output and venous saturation therefore both go up, and resistance goes down. Patients are often hypotensive yet warm and well perfused. The fault is lost vascular tone, not pump failure, so an alpha agonist fits. Milrinone would only add more vasodilation.

The trap

Low mixed venous saturation. A low mixed venous saturation suggests poor perfusion, so it seems to fit a sick, often hypotensive cirrhotic. But output is high and arteriovenous shunting returns oxygen-rich blood unextracted, so the saturation rises instead.

Evidence

End-stage liver disease is described as hyperdynamic. Cardiac output or index is raised, systemic and peripheral resistance is low, volume is expanded, shunts are present and mixed venous saturation is around 90%. Milrinone's vasodilation is unwanted. Alpha-agonist drugs can help when hypotension needs treatment.

Sources: Barash 9eMayo reviewOutside our books: Acute Kidney Injury and Hepatorenal Syndrome in Patients with Cirrhosis (2023)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A hypotensive, warm cirrhotic has a high cardiac output. Which would you expect: SVR high or low, and mixed venous saturation high or low?

Low SVR and high mixed venous saturation, around 90%.

Common misconception That low mixed venous saturation fits a sick cirrhotic

Hypotension in end-stage liver disease with hyperdynamic circulation: milrinone or an alpha agonist, and why?

Alpha agonist; the fault is lost vascular tone, and milrinone adds vasodilation.

Report a problem with entry 59: Cirrhosis: hyperdynamic circulation with high cardiac output, low systemic vascular resistance and high mixed venous saturation

Part 4060 / 68

Liver disease with hypoxaemia: hepatopulmonary syndrome (intrapulmonary vasodilation, worse upright) and portopulmonary hypertension

Liver disease plus hypoxaemia with right heart strain (raised JVP, right-sided ECG changes) means portopulmonary hypertension; hypoxaemia worse upright, without strain, suggests hepatopulmonary syndrome.

Why

Portal hypertension can damage the lung vessels in two different ways. In portopulmonary hypertension, systemic vasodilatation is paired with local production of pulmonary vasoconstrictors. Pulmonary arterial pressure therefore rises, and the right heart hypertrophies and then fails. This shows as distended neck veins, an enlarged liver, and right atrial and ventricular hypertrophy on the ECG. Hepatopulmonary syndrome is a different lesion: the pulmonary vessels dilate and create an intrapulmonary shunt. Its hallmark is shunt hypoxaemia, often eased by lying supine.

The trap

Hepatopulmonary syndrome for any hypoxaemia. It is tempting because liver disease with hypoxaemia is the textbook pairing for hepatopulmonary syndrome. But its lesion is vascular dilatation causing shunt. P pulmonale, right axis deviation and a raised JVP point to pulmonary arterial hypertension with right ventricular strain, which is portopulmonary hypertension.

Evidence

Overt right ventricular failure shows as raised jugular venous pressure and hepatosplenomegaly, with right atrial and ventricular hypertrophy on ECG. Portopulmonary hypertension is pulmonary arterial hypertension complicating portal hypertension. Hepatopulmonary syndrome is liver dysfunction, unexplained hypoxaemia and intrapulmonary vascular dilatation, sometimes with orthodeoxia.

Sources: Stoelting 8eBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 55-year-old with cirrhosis is hypoxaemic, with raised JVP, P pulmonale and right axis deviation on ECG. Which pulmonary vascular complication is this?

Portopulmonary hypertension, with pulmonary arterial hypertension and right ventricular strain

A cirrhotic patient is hypoxaemic when sitting up, better supine, with no signs of right heart strain. Which syndrome, and what is the lesion?

Hepatopulmonary syndrome: intrapulmonary vasodilation causing shunt

Common misconception That any hypoxaemia in liver disease means hepatopulmonary syndrome

Report a problem with entry 60: Liver disease with hypoxaemia: hepatopulmonary syndrome (intrapulmonary vasodilation, worse upright) and portopulmonary hypertension

Part 4061 / 68

Hepatitis C cirrhosis with ascites, encephalopathy and coagulopathy: the leading cause of death

In chronic cirrhosis, portal hypertension is the main driver of death. Cerebral oedema is the leading early killer only in acute (fulminant) hepatic failure.

Why

In established cirrhosis, scarring obstructs portal flow. The resulting portal hypertension sits upstream of the complications that kill: variceal bleeding, ascites, hepatorenal failure and encephalopathy. Miller therefore treats portal hypertension, rather than any single complication, as the main source of illness and death. Stoelting names intracranial hypertension as the chief cause of early death, but only in acute hepatic failure, where cerebral hyperaemia and a leaky blood–brain barrier swell the brain. Decide by setting: chronic decompensated cirrhosis points to portal hypertension, and fulminant failure points to raised intracranial pressure.

The trap

Cerebral oedema as the main killer. Encephalopathy brings cerebral oedema to mind, and it is the main early killer in fulminant hepatic failure. This patient, however, has chronic hepatitis C cirrhosis with ascites. That is decompensated chronic disease, and here portal hypertension and its consequences drive mortality.

Evidence

One text attributes most cirrhosis-related illness and death to portal hypertension. Another names raised intracranial pressure as the chief early killer in acute hepatic failure. A third lists variceal bleeding, ascites, hepatorenal syndrome and encephalopathy as complications of cirrhosis that carry poor survival.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 58-year-old with chronic hepatitis C cirrhosis, ascites, encephalopathy and coagulopathy is listed for surgery. Which process mainly drives mortality in this setting?

Portal hypertension and its complications, such as variceal bleeding and hepatorenal failure

A 30-year-old develops fulminant hepatic failure after paracetamol overdose. Which complication is the leading early killer, unlike in chronic cirrhosis?

Cerebral oedema with raised intracranial pressure

Common misconception That cerebral oedema is the main killer in chronic cirrhosis with encephalopathy

Report a problem with entry 61: Hepatitis C cirrhosis with ascites, encephalopathy and coagulopathy: the leading cause of death

Part 4062 / 68

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS): decompresses the portal system; main indications are variceal bleeding and refractory ascites

TIPS lowers portal, not systemic, pressure: use it for variceal bleeding failing medical therapy or refractory ascites; avoid in encephalopathy, heart failure, pulmonary hypertension.

Why

A stent is tunnelled through liver tissue from a hepatic vein into the portal vein, so portal blood drains straight into the systemic veins. This lowers the portosystemic gradient, which shrinks distended oesophageal varices and controls ascites. Systemic pressure is not the target. Because portal blood now bypasses the liver, encephalopathy can worsen, so existing encephalopathy weighs against the procedure. Cardiac failure, tricuspid regurgitation and significant pulmonary hypertension are contraindications. TIPS is usually chosen after endoscopic or drug treatment has failed, and it often serves as a bridge to transplant.

The trap

Encephalopathy as an indication. Encephalopathy is a familiar complication of portal hypertension, so decompressing the portal system looks as if it should help. It does the opposite: the shunted blood bypasses the liver and encephalopathy often worsens. Existing encephalopathy is a reason for caution, not an indication.

Evidence

TIPS is a portal-to-systemic channel relieving portal hypertension. It is indicated for repeated variceal bleeding despite medical therapy and intractable ascites. Heart failure, tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension contraindicate it; encephalopathy may worsen afterwards.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 54-year-old with cirrhosis rebleeds from oesophageal varices despite band ligation and drug therapy. Which procedure lowers portal pressure by joining hepatic and portal veins?

TIPS, for variceal bleeding failing medical therapy

A 61-year-old with cirrhosis has refractory ascites and previous episodes of encephalopathy. Is TIPS a good option, and what is the concern?

Caution: shunting bypasses the liver and may worsen encephalopathy

Common misconception That decompressing the portal system will help encephalopathy

Report a problem with entry 62: Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS): decompresses the portal system; main indications are variceal bleeding and refractory ascites

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsTransplant listing and aftercare

  1. 063Priority on the paediatric liver-transplant list: who is listed first
  2. 064Calcineurin inhibitors (ciclosporin, tacrolimus) after transplantation cause hypomagnesaemia
  3. 065The electrolyte abnormality seen most often following kidney transplantation
  4. 066Right-lobe living-donor liver transplantation: pleural effusion is among the recipient's commonest early complications; donors rank infection first
Part 4063 / 68

Priority on the paediatric liver-transplant list: who is listed first

List a child in acute liver failure first. Rank everyone else by severity score (PELD in children, MELD in adults), then by compatible blood group.

Why

Barash puts sudden liver failure above any score-based ranking. Among the rest, priority follows the score. Faust explains that the score combines bilirubin, creatinine and INR to estimate survival in end-stage disease, so a higher score means sicker and more urgent. Children are scored on PELD, and centres can request exception points when the score misses the true severity of a disease.

The trap

Highest severity score always outranks acute liver failure. It is tempting because a higher score does mean sicker and does raise priority. But the score only orders children with chronic or end-stage disease. A child in acute failure goes ahead of every score. Children are also scored on PELD, not MELD.

Evidence

Donor livers go first to acute liver failure, then to the highest MELD or PELD score with a compatible blood group. Exception points can be requested for paediatric diseases the score underrates. A higher MELD score reflects more severe liver failure.

Sources: Barash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 4-year-old in acute liver failure has a modest PELD score. Another child with chronic disease has the highest PELD on the list. Who is listed first?

The child in acute liver failure, ahead of every score.

Among children without acute failure, a transplant centre ranks by MELD, then blood group. Is that correct?

No; children are ranked by PELD, then compatible blood group.

Common misconception That children are ranked by MELD like adults

Report a problem with entry 63: Priority on the paediatric liver-transplant list: who is listed first

Part 4064 / 68

Calcineurin inhibitors (ciclosporin, tacrolimus) after transplantation cause hypomagnesaemia

In a transplant recipient on ciclosporin-type immunosuppression, expect low magnesium. Potassium tends to rise, not fall, because renal potassium excretion is impaired.

Why

Calcineurin inhibitors are mainstays of transplant regimens, and the kidney is their main target. Ciclosporin's recognised long-term toxicities include kidney damage, hypertension and magnesium loss. Ciclosporin and tacrolimus also reduce the kidney's ability to excrete potassium, so they cause hyperkalaemia, not hypokalaemia. Once magnesium is low, the kidney damage gets worse. Low potassium and acidosis add to the injury too, but they are risk factors that make the toxicity worse, not effects of the drug. Years after transplant, the expected chronic finding is therefore hypomagnesaemia.

The trap

Hypokalaemia alongside low magnesium. Low magnesium often comes with low potassium, and hypokalaemia is listed among factors that worsen calcineurin-inhibitor kidney injury, so the two seem to go together. But these drugs impair renal potassium excretion and appear among causes of hyperkalaemia. The expected potassium change is a rise.

Evidence

An adverse-effect table lists ciclosporin with kidney toxicity, hypertension and low magnesium. A hyperkalaemia table names ciclosporin and tacrolimus as drug causes of impaired renal potassium excretion. Low magnesium and potassium make their kidney injury worse.

Sources: Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 45-year-old, 8 years after renal transplant on tacrolimus, comes for elective surgery. Which magnesium abnormality do you expect?

Hypomagnesaemia from calcineurin inhibitor therapy.

The same patient has low magnesium on ciclosporin. Which way do you expect the potassium to move, and why?

Up: impaired renal potassium excretion, not hypokalaemia.

Common misconception That low magnesium from these drugs comes with low potassium

Report a problem with entry 64: Calcineurin inhibitors (ciclosporin, tacrolimus) after transplantation cause hypomagnesaemia

Part 4065 / 68

The electrolyte abnormality seen most often following kidney transplantation

After renal transplantation, expect hyperkalaemia. Potassium surges when the graft is reperfused, and calcineurin-inhibitor immunosuppression then reduces renal potassium excretion.

Why

When the clamps come off, preservative fluid flushed from the graft and stagnant venous blood from the legs enter the circulation together. A sudden rise in potassium is the likely cause of cardiac arrest reported at this moment. Afterwards, recipients take cyclosporine or tacrolimus, and both of these cut renal potassium excretion. A newly placed graft that is not yet working well, or is oliguric, cannot clear the extra potassium. Each of these pushes serum potassium up, not down.

The trap

Hypokalaemia from graft diuresis. A new graft cannot concentrate urine well, so you might expect a large diuresis to wash out potassium. But the potassium released at reperfusion, the calcineurin inhibitors and any delay in graft function all raise potassium. That makes high potassium, not low, the problem to anticipate.

Evidence

Cardiac arrest after the graft artery is unclamped is attributed to sudden hyperkalaemia, as preservative solution and leg venous blood enter the circulation. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus, the standard transplant immunosuppressants, are listed among drugs that cause hyperkalaemia by impairing renal excretion.

Sources: Stoelting 8eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A recipient arrests moments after the graft artery is unclamped. Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely, and what has entered the circulation?

Hyperkalaemia, from preservative fluid and stagnant leg venous blood.

Days after transplant, on tacrolimus with an oliguric graft, which potassium problem should you expect: high or low, and why?

High; calcineurin inhibitors and poor graft function reduce potassium excretion.

Common misconception That a new graft's diuresis washes out potassium

Report a problem with entry 65: The electrolyte abnormality seen most often following kidney transplantation

Part 4066 / 68

Right-lobe living-donor liver transplantation: pleural effusion is among the recipient's commonest early complications; donors rank infection first

For the right-lobe transplant recipient, pleural effusion is among the commonest early complications; in the living donor, infection ranks first and pleural effusion second.

Why

Two different people have surgery, and each has a different complication list, so first decide which patient is meant. The recipient's new liver replaces a diseased one. After liver transplant, early heart and lung problems are more frequent than after kidney transplant. Pleural effusion and pulmonary oedema each reach about 47%, and pneumonia 38%. The donor list is different: infection comes first at 13.2%, with pleural effusion close behind at 11.0%. Pneumothorax and pulmonary embolism are uncommon in donors.

The trap

Incisional hernia from the large incision. Incisional hernia is tempting because the large upper-abdominal incision makes wound failure seem likely, and it does appear in donor lists. But it is less frequent: in donors it comes after infection and pleural effusion, and it is not among the recipient's leading early complications.

Evidence

Liver recipients have more early heart and lung complications than kidney recipients, with pleural effusion and pulmonary oedema each up to 47%. In a large donor series, infection was commonest (13.2%), then pleural effusion (11.0%). Hernia, embolism and pneumothorax were less frequent.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 41-year-old donates a right lobe. On day 3 she has a fever and a positive wound culture. Which complication ranks first in donors, and which second?

Infection first, pleural effusion second.

A 52-year-old recipient of a right-lobe graft is breathless on day 2 with a chest film showing basal opacity. Which early complication is among the commonest?

Pleural effusion, up to about 47%, alongside pulmonary oedema.

Report a problem with entry 66: Right-lobe living-donor liver transplantation: pleural effusion is among the recipient's commonest early complications; donors rank infection first

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsAssociations

  1. 067Rhabdomyolysis: dark brown (cola-coloured) urine from myoglobin
  2. 068Sarcoidosis causes hypercalcaemia (granulomas make calcitriol)
Part 4067 / 68

Rhabdomyolysis: dark brown (cola-coloured) urine from myoglobin

When rhabdomyolysis is present, as in advanced malignant hyperthermia, expect dark brown (cola-coloured) urine caused by myoglobin passing into the urine.

Why

When skeletal muscle breaks down, it releases myoglobin, a haem pigment, which the kidneys filter into the urine. This gives the urine a dark, cola-like colour, and serum creatine kinase rises sharply at the same time. A general urine-colour table lists myoglobinuria under both red and brown/black. The anaesthesia texts settle which applies here: in muscle breakdown with acidosis they describe cola-coloured urine. So in rhabdomyolysis, expect dark brown urine.

The trap

Red urine because myoglobin resembles haemoglobin. Myoglobin is a haem pigment like haemoglobin, and myoglobinuria does appear in the red row of urine-colour tables. That makes red seem reasonable. But the textbook picture of muscle breakdown is cola-coloured urine, and the same table also places myoglobinuria under brown/black.

Evidence

In malignant hyperthermia, rigidity can progress to rhabdomyolysis. The texts then describe cola-coloured urine together with myoglobinuria and a marked rise in creatine kinase. A renal function table lists myoglobinuria both as a red cause and as a brown/black cause.

Sources: Mayo reviewStoelting 8eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Advanced malignant hyperthermia with rigidity, acidosis and a sharply rising creatine kinase. What colour is the urine and which pigment causes it?

Dark brown, cola-coloured, from myoglobin.

Myoglobin is a haem pigment like haemoglobin, so should urine in rhabdomyolysis look red?

No; muscle breakdown gives dark brown, cola-coloured urine.

Common misconception That myoglobinuria in rhabdomyolysis turns the urine red

Report a problem with entry 67: Rhabdomyolysis: dark brown (cola-coloured) urine from myoglobin

Part 4068 / 68

Sarcoidosis causes hypercalcaemia (granulomas make calcitriol)

In sarcoidosis, expect hypercalcaemia. It is driven by granuloma-related vitamin D activity and corrected by suppressing the granulomatous inflammation.

Why

Sarcoid granulomas produce vitamin D activity that is not properly regulated, and this raises serum calcium. Patients with a history of hypercalcaemia have active vitamin D levels that are high relative to the 25-hydroxy storage form. The calcium excess comes from the inflammation itself. Immunosuppression that damps the granulomas therefore corrects it, alongside intravenous fluids. Persistent hypercalcaemia then injures the kidney, so renal dysfunction is a consequence of the high calcium, not a separate low-calcium state.

The trap

Hypocalcaemia from renal failure. Hypocalcaemia is tempting because sarcoidosis can lead to renal failure, and chronic kidney disease is linked to low calcium. In sarcoidosis the order is reversed. Excess vitamin D activity raises calcium first, and the kidney damage follows from that hypercalcaemia.

Evidence

A systematic review found raised serum calcium in 6% of sarcoidosis patients on routine testing, and nearly half of those develop renal failure. About 90% respond when immunosuppression is used to control granulomatous inflammation and the vitamin D-driven hypercalcaemia that comes with it.

Sources: Outside our books: Diagnosis and Detection of Sarcoidosis: An Official American Thoracic Society Clinical Practice Guideline (2020)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 45-year-old with sarcoidosis has thirst, polyuria and rising creatinine. Which calcium abnormality is expected, and what drives it?

Hypercalcaemia from unregulated granuloma vitamin D (calcitriol) activity.

Sarcoidosis with renal impairment: should calcium be low, as in chronic kidney disease? What corrects the calcium?

No; calcium is high first; immunosuppression of granulomas plus intravenous fluids corrects it.

Common misconception That renal failure in sarcoidosis means hypocalcaemia

Report a problem with entry 68: Sarcoidosis causes hypercalcaemia (granulomas make calcitriol)

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Sheet 11 · Renal & Hepatic68 / 68

That is every concept on the renal & hepatic sheet.

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