We do the sorting. You do the medicine.

Obstetric, the reference

Sheet 05 · 88 explained concepts · in the order of the cards

Each entry says why the rule holds, the tempting wrong answer and why it is wrong, and what the books say. Then the clues that point to it: tap one to see the answer.

Study notes in our own words, checked against the named textbooks and guidelines. Not for patient care. Not affiliated with any examining body.

Core rulesAll entries001 / 88, open the list of all entries

Core rulesThe mother first

  1. 001Maternal cardiac arrest CPR: same defibrillation energy and drugs as any adult, supine with manual uterine displacement
  2. 002Maternal cardiac arrest as CPR begins: continue CPR with manual uterine displacement and deliver within 4-5 minutes if circulation has not returned
  3. 003Maternal cardiac arrest with CPR already running about 3 minutes: start the perimortem caesarean now, resuscitating throughout
Core rules001 / 88

Maternal cardiac arrest CPR: same defibrillation energy and drugs as any adult, supine with manual uterine displacement

In maternal arrest, run standard adult resuscitation: usual shock energy and adrenaline, supine with manual uterine displacement; start caesarean if no circulation by 4 minutes.

Why

A term uterus presses on the aorta and vena cava. This cuts venous return, so chest compressions move little blood. Keeping her flat while an assistant pushes the uterus aside relieves that pressure. Otherwise the arrest is managed as for any adult: standard shock energy, standard adrenaline, and shocks never held back for the fetus. Delivery removes the compressing uterus. So if circulation has not returned after 4 minutes of resuscitation, perimortem caesarean starts where she arrested, aiming to deliver within about 4–5 minutes.

The trap

Fifteen-minute caesarean deadline is dangerously late. A quarter-hour deadline sounds urgent, but it is far too late. Caesarean begins when circulation has not returned after 4 minutes, and delivery should follow within about 4–5 minutes. Meanwhile, shocks and adrenaline continue at their usual adult doses.

Evidence

Keep the woman supine with the uterus manually displaced, give the same shock energy as for a non-pregnant adult, and proceed to caesarean if circulation has not returned after 4 minutes. Reported cases used standard defibrillation and adrenaline, delivering within 4–5 minutes.

Sources: Miller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A woman at 37 weeks arrests in ventricular fibrillation on the labour ward. What shock energy and adrenaline dose do you use?

Standard adult shock energy and standard adrenaline, unchanged by pregnancy.

Pulseless at 38 weeks with compressions running. A colleague is relaxed about getting the baby out at a leisurely pace. What are the cut and delivery times?

Begin caesarean if still pulseless at 4 minutes; baby out by about 5.

Common misconception That delivery within 15 minutes is soon enough

Report a problem with entry 1: Maternal cardiac arrest CPR: same defibrillation energy and drugs as any adult, supine with manual uterine displacement

Core rules002 / 88

Maternal cardiac arrest as CPR begins: continue CPR with manual uterine displacement and deliver within 4-5 minutes if circulation has not returned

Run CPR with manual uterine displacement; caesarean delivery if circulation is not restored within 4 minutes, aiming to have the baby out by 5.

Why

The gravid uterus presses on the aorta and vena cava, reducing venous return so compressions generate little output. From the size where the fundus reaches the umbilicus, an assistant pushes it aside by hand while she stays supine. A brief trial of standard CPR comes first while the team prepares. If that fails, emptying the uterus where she lies relieves the compression, aiding the mother first: the guideline's 4-minute trigger leads into Barash's 5-minute delivery target. Keeping her supine is also correct (Miller); the pregnancy-specific key is timely delivery.

The trap

Immediate caesarean skips diagnostic CPR trial. It sounds decisive and protective of the fetus. But the operation is done for the mother, to relieve compression of the great vessels. It follows a short trial of CPR with uterine displacement that fails to restore circulation. Operating at once skips that trial and gets the purpose wrong.

Evidence

The ASA/SOAP guideline says to start standard resuscitation with uterine displacement and have obstetricians perform caesarean delivery if circulation has not returned within 4 minutes; Barash sets delivery ideally within 5 minutes of arrest; Miller explains the vessel compression and supine manual displacement.

Sources: Outside our books: Practice Guidelines for Obstetric Anesthesia: An Updated Report by the American Society of Anesthesiologists Task Force on Obstetric Anesthesia and the Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology (2016)Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Arrest at 34 weeks with the fundus above the umbilicus. How is she positioned and caval compression relieved during compressions?

Supine, with an assistant pushing the uterus aside by hand.

A registrar wants to open the abdomen the instant a 36-week parturient arrests, to save the baby. What is the purpose and timing of delivery?

Done for the mother, after a short failed CPR trial; cut at 4 minutes.

Common misconception That the caesarean is done at once for the baby

Report a problem with entry 2: Maternal cardiac arrest as CPR begins: continue CPR with manual uterine displacement and deliver within 4-5 minutes if circulation has not returned

Core rules003 / 88

Maternal cardiac arrest with CPR already running about 3 minutes: start the perimortem caesarean now, resuscitating throughout

In pregnant arrest without return of circulation, begin caesarean at the arrest site by 4 minutes, delivering by 5, and keep resuscitating throughout.

Why

A gravid uterus compresses the great vessels and reduces venous return, so chest compressions produce little output. Emptying the uterus improves ACLS effectiveness and benefits a viable fetus. Barash advises delivery ideally within 5 minutes of arrest. Miller advises starting the caesarean if circulation has not returned after 4 minutes, aiming for delivery by 5. These are consistent: 4 minutes is when to cut; 5 is when the baby should be delivered. Operate where she lies, without transfer, and continue compressions.

The trap

Prolonged CPR fails without uterine evacuation. This follows ordinary adult ACLS habit: keep compressing and reassess. In late pregnancy, caval compression blunts every compression, so long CPR without emptying the uterus rarely brings circulation back. Delivery is itself part of the resuscitation. Waiting forfeits both mother and baby.

Evidence

Barash advises perimortem caesarean ideally within 5 minutes of arrest, on the spot rather than in theatre. Miller advises starting at the site if circulation has not returned after 4 minutes, aiming for delivery by 5. The gravid uterus hampers compressions; delivery likely aids ACLS.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
CPR has run 3 minutes in a 38-week woman with no return of circulation. Where and when does the caesarean happen?

Where she lies, starting by 4 minutes, baby out by 5.

During pregnant arrest, a colleague proposes 20 more minutes of standard CPR before any delivery. Why is this wrong?

Caval compression blunts CPR; deliver early and keep compressing throughout.

Common misconception That prolonged standard CPR should precede delivery

Report a problem with entry 3: Maternal cardiac arrest with CPR already running about 3 minutes: start the perimortem caesarean now, resuscitating throughout

Back to card 1Back to contents

Core rulesObstetric haemorrhage, in order

  1. 004Leading cause of maternal death
  2. 005Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum haemorrhage
  3. 006Uterine bleeding: uterine massage and uterotonics first
  4. 007Uterotonic doses and routes: methylergometrine 0.2 mg IM, not intravenous as a routine; carboprost 0.25 mg IM every 15-60 minutes; misoprostol 600-800 mcg
  5. 008Abruption or previa bleeding of 1,200-1,500 mL: the first blood product step
  6. 009Massive obstetric haemorrhage: transfuse red cells and plasma at a high ratio (1:1)
  7. 010Ongoing bleeding at obstetric hysterectomy after 7-6-6 transfusion: the next product
  8. 011Bleeding and hypotension hours after a caesarean for previa: back to theatre, red cells on the clinical picture, plasma once clotting fails
Core rules004 / 88

Leading cause of maternal death

For the leading cause of maternal death, choose obstetric haemorrhage; US data rank grouped cardiovascular disease first, but cardiomyopathy alone still ranks below haemorrhage.

Why

Barash says bleeding kills more mothers worldwide than any other cause, about 25% of deaths. Miller's US series differs: grouped cardiovascular conditions lead at 15.5%, but that heading pools many heart diseases. Counted alone, cardiomyopathy sits below haemorrhage in every US series: 11% against 11.4% in 2011 to 2013, 10.6% against 11.5% in CDC surveillance for 2005 to 2024, and 8.5% against 13.7% in state reviews for 2017 to 2019. So against cardiomyopathy, pre-eclampsia or aspiration, haemorrhage wins in both sources.

The trap

Cardiovascular disease as leading cause. It is tempting because recent texts stress that heart disease now causes the most pregnancy-related deaths in the US. But that figure groups many cardiac conditions together. Cardiomyopathy on its own still ranks just below haemorrhage in US data, and worldwide haemorrhage leads clearly.

Evidence

Bleeding accounts for roughly 25% of maternal deaths globally, chiefly in low-resource settings. In US data for 2011 to 2013, cardiovascular conditions lead (15.5%), then haemorrhage (11.4%), cardiomyopathy (11%) and hypertensive disorders (7.4%). Haemorrhage deaths are falling; cardiovascular deaths are rising.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Worldwide, which single cause kills the most mothers, accounting for about 25% of maternal deaths?

Obstetric haemorrhage.

US data show grouped cardiovascular disease leading at 15.5%. Against cardiomyopathy alone (11% in 2011 to 2013), where does haemorrhage at 11.4% rank?

Above cardiomyopathy; the cardiovascular figure pools many heart diseases.

Common misconception That cardiac disease overtakes haemorrhage as a single cause of maternal death

Report a problem with entry 4: Leading cause of maternal death

Core rules005 / 88

Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum haemorrhage

When a woman bleeds heavily after delivery and nothing else is known, blame uterine atony first. Then look for trauma, retained tissue and failed clotting.

Why

Once the placenta separates, the open vessels in the placental bed stop bleeding mainly because the muscle of the uterus contracts around them. Anything that tires, overstretches or inflames that muscle leaves the vessels open. Examples are labour that has been augmented or has gone on a long time, multiple gestation, polyhydramnios and chorioamnionitis. These are common, so atony outnumbers every other cause. It can happen after vaginal or caesarean birth, and the bleeding may be sudden or come hours later.

The trap

Retained placenta diagnosis misses atony likelihood. Retained placenta is a real and listed cause, and it also predisposes to atony, so it sounds specific and clever. But nothing in the history points to incomplete delivery of the placenta. A soft, tired uterus after a long labour is far more likely, and atony accounts for most cases.

Evidence

Textbooks and WHO guidance agree that atony is the leading cause after either vaginal or caesarean birth and accounts for over 70% of cases. Genital tract trauma, rupture, retained tissue and coagulopathy contribute less often.

Sources: FaustBarash 9eOutside our books: WHO Recommendations for the Prevention and Treatment of Postpartum Haemorrhage (2012)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
After a 20-hour augmented labour, a para 3 bleeds heavily soon after birth. Nothing else is known. Most likely cause?

Uterine atony.

Heavy bleeding after a twin birth with polyhydramnios; the placenta came out complete. A student suspects retained placenta. Which cause is likelier?

Atony, which accounts for over 70% of cases.

Common misconception That retained placenta is the likeliest cause

Report a problem with entry 5: Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum haemorrhage

Core rules006 / 88

Uterine bleeding: uterine massage and uterotonics first

For postpartum uterine bleeding, massage the uterus and give a uterotonic, with oxytocin as the first choice, before any airway, surgical or escalation step.

Why

Postpartum haemorrhage most commonly results from a floppy (atonic) uterus, so the first job is to make the uterus contract again. Massage can start at the bedside as soon as the bleeding is recognised and needs no equipment. Oxytocin then keeps the uterus contracted. Crystalloid fluid resuscitation starts at the same time. Tranexamic acid and further measures are only for bleeding that continues after these first steps.

The trap

Cross-matching delays urgent uterotonic treatment. Cross-matching is tempting because heavy bleeding makes you think of transfusion. But ordering blood does nothing to make an atonic uterus contract, so the bleeding carries on. The first step that deals with the cause is massage plus a uterotonic. Blood preparation runs alongside it and does not replace it.

Evidence

Guidance and textbooks agree that atony is the commonest cause of postpartum haemorrhage. Uterine massage should start as soon as haemorrhage is diagnosed, with oxytocin as the first drug and early crystalloid resuscitation. Tranexamic acid is kept for refractory atonic bleeding.

Sources: Outside our books: WHO Recommendations for the Prevention and Treatment of Postpartum Haemorrhage (2012)Miller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Brisk bleeding with a boggy uterus ten minutes after vaginal birth. What are the first measures?

Rub up the uterus and give oxytocin, with crystalloid alongside.

Atonic postpartum bleed: the midwife's first move is to send blood for cross-match. What should come first?

Massage plus a uterotonic; blood preparation runs alongside, not instead.

Common misconception That ordering blood treats the atonic uterus

Report a problem with entry 6: Uterine bleeding: uterine massage and uterotonics first

Core rules007 / 88

Uterotonic doses and routes: methylergometrine 0.2 mg IM, not intravenous as a routine; carboprost 0.25 mg IM every 15-60 minutes; misoprostol 600-800 mcg

If oxytocin fails, add methylergometrine 0.2 mg IM, carboprost 0.25 mg IM every 15–60 minutes, or misoprostol 600–800 mcg; never rapid-IV methylergometrine.

Why

Extra oxytocin achieves little in an unresponsive uterus, so switch mechanism. Methylergometrine, an ergot, constricts vessels, causing hypertension and coronary spasm: give 0.2 mg IM, at most 5 doses, and avoid it in pre-eclampsia. Faust calls IV use controversial; the label allows IV only slowly over at least 60 seconds with pressure watched, as a lifesaving measure. Carboprost can cause bronchospasm; Barash repeats it every 15–60 minutes, Mayo allows up to 90 and a 2 mg ceiling. Misoprostol is 600–800 mcg in Miller's; none sets an hourly repeat.

The trap

Rapid intravenous methylergometrine 200 mcg. Methylergometrine is a real second-line uterotonic and 200 mcg is the correct dose, so this looks right. The route fails: it is an intramuscular vasoconstrictor, and a rapid IV dose risks hypertensive crisis, stroke or coronary spasm; IV use is reserved for a slow, monitored last resort.

Evidence

Barash tabulates methylergometrine 0.2 mg IM and carboprost 0.25 mg IM every 15–60 minutes. Miller's names both as second-line agents and adds misoprostol 600–800 mcg. Mayo allows carboprost IM or intramyometrially every 15–90 minutes to 2 mg. Faust calls IV methylergometrine controversial.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eMayo reviewFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Postpartum haemorrhage continues despite oxytocin in a normotensive woman. Name the second-line uterotonics with doses and routes.

Methylergometrine 0.2 mg IM, carboprost 0.25 mg IM 15–60 minutely, misoprostol 600–800 mcg.

The uterus is atonic and a colleague draws up methylergometrine 200 mcg as a rapid intravenous bolus. What is wrong?

Route wrong: rapid IV risks hypertensive crisis, stroke, coronary spasm; give IM.

Common misconception That a correct dose makes rapid intravenous methylergometrine acceptable

Report a problem with entry 7: Uterotonic doses and routes: methylergometrine 0.2 mg IM, not intravenous as a routine; carboprost 0.25 mg IM every 15-60 minutes; misoprostol 600-800 mcg

Core rules008 / 88

Abruption or previa bleeding of 1,200-1,500 mL: the first blood product step

Obstetric bleeding this size: start red cells on the clinical picture; with abruption add early fibrinogen, send coagulation studies, prepare for massive transfusion.

Why

Stoelting's general-surgical classes reserve red cells for losses far larger than this, but a parturient's bleeding is rapid, can be concealed and consumes clotting factors, so the obstetric chapters of Miller and Barash start replacement on the clinical picture instead of awaiting laboratory results. Abruption makes coagulopathy far likelier and fibrinogen drops early, so fibrinogen or cryoprecipitate begins alongside red cells; coagulation results then decide whether plasma and platelets follow, unless bleeding turns massive or continues, when plasma is given with red cells without waiting.

The trap

Fixed ratio package unwarranted at this volume. Abruption's coagulopathy makes a pre-set ratio package look thorough. But this loss is not yet massive, fixed ratios were borrowed from trauma and are questioned in obstetrics, and any ratio used is balanced, not red-cell heavy. Coagulation results decide when plasma and platelets follow.

Evidence

Obstetric texts say to begin replacement from clinical assessment without awaiting laboratory results and to give fibrinogen or cryoprecipitate early. Prompt component therapy restores oxygenation and corrects coagulopathy. Abruption makes coagulopathy 54 times likelier, so coagulation is monitored closely and massive transfusion is prepared.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Abruption with an estimated 1,300 mL loss and falling pressure; labs are pending. First blood product step?

Start red cells now, add early fibrinogen, send coagulation studies.

For a 1,400 mL abruption bleed, a colleague orders a fixed red-cell-heavy pack of cells, platelets and plasma. Better approach?

Red cells with early fibrinogen; coagulation results decide plasma and platelets.

Common misconception That a preset red-cell-heavy ratio package is needed

Report a problem with entry 8: Abruption or previa bleeding of 1,200-1,500 mL: the first blood product step

Core rules009 / 88

Massive obstetric haemorrhage: transfuse red cells and plasma at a high ratio (1:1)

Massive obstetric haemorrhage: start red cells and plasma early, roughly 1:1, on clinical grounds with early fibrinogen; then tailor products to coagulation results.

Why

Obstetric bleeding shares trauma's hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy, so Barash carries trauma's mortality-lowering 1:1 red cell to plasma ratio into obstetrics. Red cells alone dilute clotting factors, and fibrinogen falls early, so plasma and fibrinogen must keep pace. Miller's trauma chapter also keeps fixed ratios, but its newer obstetric chapter questions ratios borrowed from non-obstetric settings and prefers clinical and laboratory guidance. Safe under both: in massive bleeding give plasma with red cells early without awaiting results, then move to goal-directed replacement.

The trap

Two-to-one ratio under-corrects clotting factor deficit. A ratio of two to one looks like a sensible compromise that saves plasma and echoes older massive-transfusion habits. It fails because it gives too little plasma to offset dilution and consumption of clotting factors; the cited mortality benefit belongs to matched 1:1 replacement.

Evidence

Barash says obstetric transfusion practice is adapted from trauma, where 1:1 red cells to plasma reduces haemorrhage deaths. Miller's obstetric text says early products follow the clinical picture rather than pending labs, with early fibrinogen; empiric ratios apply only until coagulation-guided therapy is possible.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Massive bleeding at caesarean, 3 L and rising. What red cell to plasma ratio do you start with?

About 1:1 with early fibrinogen, then coagulation-guided.

To save plasma, a colleague suggests two units of red cells per unit of plasma in massive obstetric bleeding. The problem?

Too little plasma against factor dilution and consumption; aim near 1:1.

Common misconception That 2:1 red cells to plasma is adequate

Report a problem with entry 9: Massive obstetric haemorrhage: transfuse red cells and plasma at a high ratio (1:1)

Core rules010 / 88

Ongoing bleeding at obstetric hysterectomy after 7-6-6 transfusion: the next product

If an obstetric patient keeps bleeding after balanced transfusion, give cryoprecipitate with red cells. If cryoprecipitate is unavailable, give red cells, not factor VIIa.

Why

Fibrinogen tends to run low early in obstetric bleeding, so it should be replaced early. The two books set different triggers. Miller's general bleeding guidance replaces fibrinogen at or below 1.5 g/L. Barash's obstetric table replaces it below 150–200 mg/dL at delivery. For a bleed at delivery the obstetric trigger applies, so a level just above the general cut-off still calls for cryoprecipitate. Red cells always run alongside to replace lost blood and keep tissues oxygenated. Using factor VIIa here is off-label, and adverse events have been reported.

The trap

Factor VIIa wrong rescue for fibrinogen loss. Factor VIIa is tempting as a rescue drug when INR and aPTT stay prolonged despite plasma. But the deficit here is fibrinogen, which cryoprecipitate replaces directly. Its off-label use in massive haemorrhage has led to adverse-event reports, so it is not universally recommended.

Evidence

Barash lists obstetric haemorrhage at delivery with fibrinogen below 150–200 mg/dL as an indication for replacement; Miller's general threshold is ≤1.5 g/L. Miller advises early cryoprecipitate or concentrate in obstetric resuscitation, cautioning against factor VIIa. Barash stresses prompt component transfusion for blood loss and oxygenation.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Still bleeding at obstetric hysterectomy after balanced transfusion; fibrinogen 160 mg/dL. Next product?

Cryoprecipitate, given with red cells.

Obstetric bleeding continues and INR stays prolonged despite plasma. A colleague reaches for recombinant factor VIIa. Your advice?

Not recommended: off-label with adverse events; cryoprecipitate and red cells instead.

Common misconception That factor VIIa is the rescue product

Report a problem with entry 10: Ongoing bleeding at obstetric hysterectomy after 7-6-6 transfusion: the next product

Core rules011 / 88

Bleeding and hypotension hours after a caesarean for previa: back to theatre, red cells on the clinical picture, plasma once clotting fails

Haemoglobin 10, no coagulopathy: resuscitate en route to theatre, red cells when ready, no plasma order. Haemoglobin 6, INR 1.7: red cells and plasma.

Why

Only surgery stops this bleeding, so ICU first, observation or a fixed red-cell-and-plasma order without surgery cannot replace theatre; early operation spares products and limits dilutional coagulopathy. A haemoglobin of 10 lags behind acute loss, so it never excuses blood: resuscitate on the way, warmed crystalloid bridging until red cells arrive. Plasma belongs once clotting fails: obstetric bleeding consumes and dilutes factors, and when haemoglobin has fallen and INR is prolonged after litres of fluid, more crystalloid thins clotting further, so red cells and plasma go in, with early fibrinogen.

The trap

Theatre first, withholding blood while giving crystalloid. Tempting because theatre stops the bleeding; it is right when the rivals are ICU first, observation, or plasma without surgery or coagulopathy. But theatre never excuses withholding blood: once haemoglobin has fallen with INR prolonged, more clear fluid deepens the coagulopathy, so red cells and plasma go in.

Evidence

Obstetric bleeding quickly causes consumptive and dilutional coagulopathy. Prompt component transfusion replaces loss, keeps tissues oxygenated and corrects clotting, guided by the clinical situation rather than awaited labs, with fibrinogen considered early. Operating as soon as possible cuts product needs and dilutional coagulopathy.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Hours after a caesarean for previa, a woman is tachycardic and hypotensive. Haemoglobin is 10, INR normal. What is the plan?

Resuscitate en route to theatre, red cells when ready, no plasma order.

After litres of crystalloid for post-caesarean bleeding, haemoglobin is 6 and INR 1.7. Is more clear fluid before theatre enough?

No. Give red cells and plasma with early fibrinogen, and operate promptly.

Common misconception That theatre excuses withholding blood and more crystalloid is enough

Report a problem with entry 11: Bleeding and hypotension hours after a caesarean for previa: back to theatre, red cells on the clinical picture, plasma once clotting fails

Back to card 2Back to contents

Core rulesUterine blood flow and the placenta

  1. 012Uterine blood flow is not autoregulated; it rises when sympathetic tone falls (pain relief in labour)
  2. 013Maternal alkalosis in labour (vomiting, hyperventilation) and fetal distress: the mechanism
  3. 014Placental transfer: small, lipophilic, un-ionised drugs cross; neuromuscular blockers, heparin and insulin do not
  4. 015Neonatal effects at caesarean of induction using succinylcholine with ketamine 2 mg/kg
Core rules012 / 88

Uterine blood flow is not autoregulated; it rises when sympathetic tone falls (pain relief in labour)

In labour, falling maternal sympathetic tone, as with effective epidural analgesia, raises uterine blood flow. Hypotension, contractions, caval compression and vasoconstriction lower it.

Why

Uterine flow equals the pressure gradient across the uterine circulation, from its arteries to its veins, divided by the resistance of its vessels. Painful contractions and bearing down set off catecholamine surges. These constrict the uterine vessels, raise resistance and cut flow. Epidural analgesia removes the pain and blunts those surges, so resistance falls and flow improves. The same block can also lower maternal blood pressure. When perfusion pressure falls, flow falls with it, so the benefit depends on keeping maternal pressure up.

The trap

Local anaesthetic alone doesn't improve uterine flow. It is tempting because epidural analgesia uses a local anaesthetic and improves uterine flow. The gain comes from losing sympathetic vasoconstriction, not from the drug itself. If the block causes maternal hypotension, uterine flow falls instead.

Evidence

Epidural analgesia damps the sympathetic surges driven by labour pain. This prevents rises in maternal heart rate and pressure and prevents falls in uterine flow. Flow was reported up to 75% higher after epidural. Hypotension, aortocaval compression, contractions and vasoconstriction all reduce uterine flow.

Sources: Barash 9eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Why does an effective labour epidural improve uterine blood flow?

It removes pain-driven sympathetic vasoconstriction, so uterine resistance falls.

Is the local anaesthetic itself what raises uterine flow after an epidural, and when would flow fall instead?

No, lost sympathetic tone does; maternal hypotension makes flow fall.

Common misconception That the local anaesthetic drug directly raises uterine flow

Report a problem with entry 12: Uterine blood flow is not autoregulated; it rises when sympathetic tone falls (pain relief in labour)

Core rules013 / 88

Maternal alkalosis in labour (vomiting, hyperventilation) and fetal distress: the mechanism

Maternal alkalaemia in labour shifts her oxyhaemoglobin curve left, reducing oxygen release to the fetus at the placenta and causing fetal distress.

Why

Vomiting loses acid and hyperventilation blows off carbon dioxide, so the mother's blood becomes alkalaemic. Alkalaemia makes haemoglobin hold oxygen more tightly and shifts the mother's curve left. At the placenta her haemoglobin keeps its oxygen, so less reaches the fetus even when her PaO2 is normal. Alkalosis may also narrow the uterine vessels. Barash states this in general terms. Miller links the fall in uterine blood flow to extreme hypocapnia below 20 mm Hg. So when hypocapnia is only moderate, the curve shift is the surer explanation.

The trap

Dehydration assumption misses hyperventilation mechanism. Prolonged vomiting suggests dehydration, and low maternal blood pressure does reduce uterine blood flow. It fails because nothing points to hypotension. The picture is a mother who is alkalaemic and hypocapnic but well oxygenated, and that points to the left-shifted curve, not volume loss.

Evidence

Barash and Miller both state that maternal alkalosis or hyperventilation shifts the oxyhaemoglobin curve left, reducing fetal oxygen delivery. Both note uterine vasoconstriction; Miller links it to extreme hypocapnia below 20 mm Hg. Maternal hypotension separately reduces uterine flow.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A labouring woman vomiting and overbreathing has pH 7.52 and normal PaO2; the fetal trace worsens. Mechanism?

Left-shifted maternal oxyhaemoglobin curve releases less oxygen to the fetus.

The same alkalaemic, well-oxygenated mother is normotensive. A colleague blames hypovolaemia from vomiting. Why is that less likely?

No hypotension; the curve shift explains poor fetal oxygen delivery.

Common misconception That maternal hypovolaemia explains the fetal distress

Report a problem with entry 13: Maternal alkalosis in labour (vomiting, hyperventilation) and fetal distress: the mechanism

Core rules014 / 88

Placental transfer: small, lipophilic, un-ionised drugs cross; neuromuscular blockers, heparin and insulin do not

Choose the small, lipid-soluble, poorly ionised drug, such as an opioid, benzodiazepine or induction agent. Charged drugs, including all neuromuscular blockers and heparin, barely cross.

Why

Drugs reach the fetus by passive diffusion down the gradient of free drug. A drug under 500 Da that is lipid-soluble and mostly un-ionised passes membranes easily. These are the same properties that let a drug into the brain. So induction agents, volatiles, opioids, benzodiazepines and local anaesthetics reach the fetus. Highly charged drugs stay mostly on the maternal side. These include heparin, glycopyrrolate and every neuromuscular blocker, suxamethonium as well as the non-depolarisers. Little phenylephrine reaches the fetus either.

The trap

Molecular charge defeats small suxamethonium transfer. Suxamethonium is a small, fast-acting drug and works differently from the non-depolarising relaxants, so people guess it diffuses freely. It fails because, like every neuromuscular blocker, it is ionised and crosses very poorly. Size alone does not help a charged molecule get through.

Evidence

Diffusion is helped by low molecular weight, high lipid solubility and little ionisation. Heparin and glycopyrrolate cross minimally because they are charged, while opioids and benzodiazepines cross readily. Both kinds of muscle relaxant cross poorly and so does phenylephrine. Every general anaesthetic drug crosses.

Sources: Mayo reviewMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Which of these crosses the placenta readily: an opioid, heparin, rocuronium or glycopyrrolate?

The opioid: small, lipid-soluble, poorly ionised.

Being small and quick, does suxamethonium diffuse freely to the fetus?

No; like every neuromuscular blocker it is charged and barely crosses.

Common misconception That suxamethonium crosses the placenta freely

Report a problem with entry 14: Placental transfer: small, lipophilic, un-ionised drugs cross; neuromuscular blockers, heparin and insulin do not

Core rules015 / 88

Neonatal effects at caesarean of induction using succinylcholine with ketamine 2 mg/kg

Succinylcholine at intubating doses leaves the newborn with normal tone; with larger ketamine doses, the concern is uterine tone and perfusion, not neonatal paralysis.

Why

Succinylcholine is highly ionised and poorly lipid soluble, so very little crosses the placenta. It cannot be detected in cord blood unless the mother gets 2–3 mg/kg. Paralysing the neonate needs about 10 mg/kg, far above an intubating dose, so the baby is born with normal tone. Ketamine at the usual induction dose of 1–1.5 mg/kg does not depress the neonate; 2 mg/kg sits above it, where uterine tone rises, uterine flow falls and the seizure threshold drops.

The trap

Standard ketamine dose carries no neonatal risk. Hypoxia is tempting because larger ketamine doses can raise uterine tone and cut uterine blood flow, so the fetus looks at risk. But that is a possible effect of higher doses, not the expected finding. Standard ketamine causes no neonatal depression, and succinylcholine barely reaches the fetus.

Evidence

Succinylcholine crosses the placenta only minimally; it is absent from cord blood below 2–3 mg/kg and blocks the neonate only at about 10 mg/kg, so the baby is not paralysed. Standard-dose ketamine causes no neonatal depression; larger doses affect uterine tone and perfusion.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Caesarean under general anaesthesia with suxamethonium 1.5 mg/kg. Will the newborn be paralysed?

No; suxamethonium barely crosses the placenta at intubating doses.

With ketamine above the usual 1–1.5 mg/kg at caesarean, what is the real concern?

Raised uterine tone and reduced uterine perfusion, not neonatal paralysis.

Report a problem with entry 15: Neonatal effects at caesarean of induction using succinylcholine with ketamine 2 mg/kg

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Part 1 · DecisionsLabour analgesia

  1. 016Labour pain relief without drugs: water immersion and massage
  2. 017Patient refusal is the absolute contraindication to labour epidural; advanced dilation, trial of labour after caesarean and platelets of 100,000 are not
  3. 018Labour epidural prolongs the second stage and may raise instrumental delivery (older pooled data), not caesarean delivery
  4. 019Opioid use disorder in labour: the analgesia plan
  5. 020Severe mitral stenosis in labour: neuraxial analgesia
  6. 021COVID-19 in late pregnancy: what changes for labour care
Part 1016 / 88

Labour pain relief without drugs: water immersion and massage

When a labouring woman declines drugs, support her choice with water immersion and massage; neuraxial block stays most effective if she later accepts medication.

Why

Many women choose drug-free comfort measures for some or all of labour. Her refusal is a valid preference to support, not one to overrule. Miller's links effectiveness with preference. Women rated neuraxial block the most effective method, yet rated hydrotherapy and massage at least as helpful as intravenous opioids. For a woman refusing medication, these are the best-supported low-risk measures. Pressing an epidural or an opioid on her ignores her wishes. Evidence for drug-free methods is mostly weak, so counsel her honestly.

The trap

Acupuncture requires specialist training and weak evidence. Acupuncture is also drug-free and has a long history, so it seems to suit a woman refusing medication. It fails because it needs specially trained staff and its evidence varies. No source calls it best. Water immersion and massage are the methods women rated favourably.

Evidence

Many labouring women prefer drug-free methods for part or all of labour. Women rated neuraxial block most effective but rated water therapy and massage at least as helpful as intravenous opioids. Methods such as acupuncture need specialised training, and evidence varies and lacks rigour.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A woman in early labour declines all analgesic drugs. Which comfort measures best support her choice?

Water immersion and massage.

A drug-refusing labouring woman hears acupuncture is the best option. Is it?

No; water immersion and massage are better supported.

Common misconception That acupuncture is best for drug-free analgesia

Report a problem with entry 16: Labour pain relief without drugs: water immersion and massage

Part 1017 / 88

Patient refusal is the absolute contraindication to labour epidural; advanced dilation, trial of labour after caesarean and platelets of 100,000 are not

Only patient refusal makes labour epidural impossible; platelets above the low-risk threshold, late cervical dilation and planned trial of labour after caesarean are not contraindications.

Why

An epidural requires consent, so a competent parturient who declines cannot have one, whatever the clinical case. Miller's and Barash list refusal first. Coagulopathy counts only when real: the obstetric thrombocytopenia consensus sets the low-risk line at 70,000, so a higher count allows a block. Advanced dilation and planned trial of labour after caesarean are absent from Miller's list; that they are allowed is inferred from this absence, as no page states it. For a trial of labour, Miller's asks only for an immediately available obstetric, anaesthetic and nursing team.

The trap

Platelet count above seventy thousand permits block. Coagulopathy is on every contraindication list, so a platelet figure in the scenario looks like a reason to refuse. The consensus sets the low-risk line far lower, at 70,000 or more, so this count supports going ahead rather than stopping.

Evidence

Miller's and Barash name patient refusal as a contraindication to neuraxial block. Consensus rates platelet counts of at least 70,000 as low haematoma risk. For trial of labour after caesarean, Miller's requires only immediate team availability; dilation is not listed.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9eOutside our books: The Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology Interdisciplinary Consensus Statement on Neuraxial Procedures in Obstetric Patients With Thrombocytopenia (2021)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Which is the absolute contraindication to labour epidural: platelets 110,000, 9 cm dilation, trial after caesarean, or the woman declining?

Patient refusal.

Platelets 95,000 in labour, no bleeding history. A colleague refuses the epidural for coagulopathy. Is that right?

No; at 70,000 or more the haematoma risk is low.

Common misconception That a count near 100,000 contraindicates epidural

Report a problem with entry 17: Patient refusal is the absolute contraindication to labour epidural; advanced dilation, trial of labour after caesarean and platelets of 100,000 are not

Part 1018 / 88

Labour epidural prolongs the second stage and may raise instrumental delivery (older pooled data), not caesarean delivery

Counsel that a labour epidural may lengthen the second stage and possibly raise instrumental delivery, but does not raise caesarean rates or speed delivery.

Why

Epidural analgesia weakens expulsive effort and may favour fetal malposition, so Barash notes a longer second stage in first-time mothers. Miller reports that pooled Cochrane data showed more assisted vaginal births, but a later subgroup analysis found no rise in trials published after 2005, implying modern epidurals spare this outcome. The evidence has weakened rather than reversed, so counselling still mentions a possible instrumental delivery, flagged as uncertain. Caesarean risk is unchanged.

The trap

Epidural doesn't increase operative delivery rates proven. Slow, prolonged second stage seems to warrant surgery, and epidurals were long feared to cause dystocia. However, randomised trials and a large Cochrane review found no change in caesarean rates. If a slow second stage ends in intervention, it is an assisted vaginal birth.

Evidence

Miller states epidural may lengthen the second stage without raising caesarean risk, supported by a 2018 Cochrane review of 33 studies; the pooled assisted-delivery rise disappeared in trials after 2005. Barash links the prolongation in nulliparous women to reduced expulsive forces.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A first-time mother asks how an epidural changes the second stage. What do you tell her?

It may lengthen it, possibly with more instrumental delivery.

Does a labour epidural raise her chance of ending with a caesarean?

No; caesarean rates are unchanged.

Common misconception That epidurals increase caesarean rates

Report a problem with entry 18: Labour epidural prolongs the second stage and may raise instrumental delivery (older pooled data), not caesarean delivery

Part 1019 / 88

Opioid use disorder in labour: the analgesia plan

In opioid use disorder, offer neuraxial labour analgesia and keep opioids, including methadone or buprenorphine, going through labour and postpartum. Never give an antagonist.

Why

If opioids are stopped or antagonised, the patient goes into acute withdrawal. Agonist therapy gives better outcomes than supervised withdrawal, so the aim is to keep the receptors occupied, not to empty them. Methadone and buprenorphine are agonists but act only weakly at the mu receptor, so the daily dose does not cover labour pain. Extra opioids also work less well because the receptors are already occupied. A local anaesthetic-based neuraxial block works without the mu receptor, so it gets round both problems.

The trap

Withdrawal from naloxone worse than opioid continuation. It sounds like the proper way to treat drug misuse. But an antagonist such as naloxone pushes opioid off the receptors and triggers acute withdrawal at the worst time. Current practice is to keep her on an agonist and add analgesia, not to reverse the opioid.

Evidence

Barash says to continue opioids and maintenance therapy through labour and after delivery to prevent withdrawal, and prefers agonist therapy to supervised withdrawal. Faust says maintenance drugs give inadequate labour analgesia and that neuraxial block is safe, effective and should be offered.

Sources: FaustBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Labouring woman on buprenorphine maintenance. What happens to her maintenance dose and what analgesia do you offer?

Continue buprenorphine; offer neuraxial analgesia.

On methadone in labour, a junior proposes naloxone to clear the opioid before analgesia. Response?

Never give an antagonist; it triggers acute withdrawal.

Common misconception That an antagonist should be given in opioid dependence

Report a problem with entry 19: Opioid use disorder in labour: the analgesia plan

Part 1020 / 88

Severe mitral stenosis in labour: neuraxial analgesia

In severe mitral stenosis in labour, site an epidural early and titrate it carefully. Withhold it only for a real contraindication, such as coagulopathy.

Why

A tight mitral valve lets the left atrium empty only in diastole. Pain-driven tachycardia and the sympathetic surge of labour shorten filling time, raise atrial and pulmonary pressures, and risk pulmonary oedema. An early neuraxial block blunts that catecholamine response. A catheter already in place can be topped up for pushing without Valsalva. Grading differs by text: Barash's three-band table calls the middle band moderate, whereas Miller and the valve guideline class it severe. An area well below that band is severe on every scheme.

The trap

Sympathectomy safer than unopposed catecholamine surge. This is tempting because a fixed-output valve seems unable to tolerate sympathectomy. But withholding the block leaves the tachycardia and catecholamine surge that decompensate the stenotic valve. A slowly titrated epidural is the recommended technique. Avoid it only for coagulopathy or an anatomical problem.

Evidence

Stoelting's table for severe maternal heart disease prefers vaginal birth with early neuraxial analgesia, arterial monitoring, catheter top-up for second stage and no Valsalva. Nearly all women with major comorbidity should receive early labour analgesia unless coagulopathy or anatomy prevents it.

Sources: Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Severe mitral stenosis at 39 weeks, early labour, normal clotting. Analgesia plan?

Early, carefully titrated epidural.

Should an epidural be avoided in severe mitral stenosis because the valve cannot cope with sympathectomy?

No; withholding leaves tachycardia. Avoid only for coagulopathy or anatomy.

Common misconception That neuraxial block is unsafe in mitral stenosis

Report a problem with entry 20: Severe mitral stenosis in labour: neuraxial analgesia

Part 1021 / 88

COVID-19 in late pregnancy: what changes for labour care

With suspected or confirmed COVID-19 in labour, nitrous oxide analgesia is the one to suspend. Neuraxial analgesia, antenatal corticosteroids and magnesium continue as usual.

Why

Early in the pandemic, obstetric anaesthesia reviewers could not say how much aerosol inhaled nitrous oxide systems produce or how to decontaminate them. They told labour units to weigh the risks and consider stopping it, so calling it contraindicated in labour matches that advice. The infection itself does not rule out an epidural or spinal. Steroids for threatened preterm birth and magnesium for fetal neuroprotection keep their normal indications. None of these sources discusses fetal scalp electrodes.

The trap

COVID infection doesn't eliminate fetal steroid benefit. Steroids suppress immunity, so withholding them from a febrile, possibly infected mother feels protective. But pandemic taskforce advice kept antenatal corticosteroids as standard care for threatened preterm birth whether or not COVID-19 is present. Maternal infection does not cancel the benefit to the fetus.

Evidence

A pandemic-era review found nitrous oxide's aerosol risk and cleaning unknown, advised units to consider suspending it, and stated COVID-19 does not preclude neuraxial analgesia. A taskforce kept antenatal steroids and magnesium neuroprotection as standard care regardless of infection. Fetal scalp monitoring is not addressed.

Sources: Outside our books: COVID-19: Obstetric anesthesia care considerations (2020)Outside our books: The National COVID-19 Clinical Evidence Taskforce: pregnancy and perinatal guidelines (2022)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Confirmed COVID-19 in labour, requesting pain relief. Which analgesic option may the unit suspend?

Nitrous oxide; neuraxial analgesia remains available.

COVID-positive at 31 weeks with threatened preterm birth. Should antenatal corticosteroids be withheld?

No; steroids and magnesium neuroprotection continue as standard.

Common misconception That antenatal steroids are contraindicated in COVID-19

Report a problem with entry 21: COVID-19 in late pregnancy: what changes for labour care

Back to card 4Back to contents

Part 1 · DecisionsPlatelets and bleeding disorders before neuraxial

  1. 022Gestational thrombocytopenia is mild, late and without a history; a low count before 20 weeks suggests immune thrombocytopenia
  2. 023Thrombocytopenia before a neuraxial block: what test predicts epidural haematoma
  3. 024von Willebrand disease in pregnancy: bleeding risk rises at delivery; prophylaxis if vWF is under 50 IU/dL; type 1 rarely needs it (vWF rises), type 2 is a functional defect
  4. 025von Willebrand disease type 1 in pregnancy: desmopressin when treatment is needed
Part 1022 / 88

Gestational thrombocytopenia is mild, late and without a history; a low count before 20 weeks suggests immune thrombocytopenia

A mild, bleeding-free platelet fall arising late in pregnancy is gestational thrombocytopenia; early onset, a deeper fall or low counts outside pregnancy suggest immune thrombocytopenia.

Why

Late in pregnancy, plasma expansion dilutes platelets and their turnover speeds up. The count therefore drifts down towards term, is normal outside pregnancy, and causes no bleeding. Because the fall is physiological, it is shallow. The SOAP consensus places it above 75,000, and Miller's says it rarely goes below 70,000/mm3; in practice the two cut-offs agree. ITP is immune destruction, so it can begin in any trimester and persist outside pregnancy. ITP and HELLP still need excluding, because gestational thrombocytopenia is a diagnosis of exclusion.

The trap

Third-trimester mild thrombocytopenia is pregnancy normal. A clearly low count with no earlier value to compare looks unexplained, so people reach for ITP. But third-trimester onset, a count above the gestational floor and no bruising or gum bleeding fit gestational thrombocytopenia. Earlier onset, a much lower count or bleeding would point to ITP instead.

Evidence

SOAP consensus: gestational thrombocytopenia arises late in the second or third trimester, with counts above 75,000 and normal counts outside pregnancy; ITP can start in any trimester. Miller's: counts rarely fall below 70,000/mm3, no abnormal bleeding, diagnosed by exclusion.

Sources: Outside our books: The Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology Interdisciplinary Consensus Statement on Neuraxial Procedures in Obstetric Patients With Thrombocytopenia (2021)Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
At 36 weeks platelets are 105,000, with no bleeding and a normal count before pregnancy. Diagnosis?

Gestational thrombocytopenia, a diagnosis of exclusion.

Platelets 40,000 at 14 weeks, with low counts before pregnancy too. Likelier diagnosis?

Immune thrombocytopenia.

Report a problem with entry 22: Gestational thrombocytopenia is mild, late and without a history; a low count before 20 weeks suggests immune thrombocytopenia

Part 1023 / 88

Thrombocytopenia before a neuraxial block: what test predicts epidural haematoma

Decide neuraxial safety in thrombocytopenia on the platelet count; no additional test (TEG, ROTEM, PFA, PT, aPTT) is proven to predict epidural haematoma.

Why

Spinal epidural haematoma is rare. Almost all evidence comes from pooled case reports linking risk to platelet count: bleeding seems more likely below 50,000 than at 70,000 or more. No study shows any other test can distinguish patients who will bleed from those who will not. PT and aPTT help only when a factor defect is known or suspected. Viscoelastic tests have only small, reassuring reports. The obstetric consensus therefore found too little evidence to recommend any extra test.

The trap

TEG cannot predict epidural block safety. TEG is tempting because it measures whole-blood clot strength at the bedside, and small obstetric series report normal traces before blocks with no haematoma. But a few uneventful cases do not show that the test predicts anything. The consensus found too little evidence to use TEG in the decision.

Evidence

The obstetric consensus says it may be reasonable to avoid a neuraxial block if the platelet count falls under 50,000. PT and aPTT do not predict bleeding unless a factor defect is suspected. There is too little evidence to recommend TEG, ROTEM or PFA.

Sources: Outside our books: The Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology Interdisciplinary Consensus Statement on Neuraxial Procedures in Obstetric Patients With Thrombocytopenia (2021)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Platelets 80,000 before a labour epidural. Which additional test predicts epidural haematoma?

None; decide on the platelet count.

A normal TEG trace in a thrombocytopenic parturient: does it prove an epidural is safe?

No; evidence is too thin to use TEG in the decision.

Common misconception That TEG predicts epidural haematoma

Report a problem with entry 23: Thrombocytopenia before a neuraxial block: what test predicts epidural haematoma

Part 1024 / 88

von Willebrand disease in pregnancy: bleeding risk rises at delivery; prophylaxis if vWF is under 50 IU/dL; type 1 rarely needs it (vWF rises), type 2 is a functional defect

Expect extra delivery bleeding in vWD; treat only when vWF falls under 50 IU/dL: type 1 usually rises past this; type 2 vWF is dysfunctional.

Why

Type 1 disease is a partial shortfall in the amount of vWF. Pregnancy pushes vWF production up, so by the third trimester most of these women are above the treatment threshold without help, and routine prophylaxis is unnecessary. Type 2 disease is a quality problem: the molecule is there but works poorly. Releasing more of it achieves little, so replacement is needed if levels are low. Childbirth is a major haemostatic challenge, and women with inherited clotting defects commonly bleed heavily after delivery.

The trap

Pregnancy-induced vWF rise negates prophylaxis need. Prophylaxis sounds sensible because vWD is a bleeding disorder and delivery carries bleeding risk. But type 1 is only a partial deficit, and the pregnancy rise in vWF usually lifts levels above threshold by term. Most women therefore need no prophylaxis; measure levels rather than treat by default.

Evidence

In type 1 disease vWF is partly reduced but usually climbs above 50 IU/dL late in pregnancy, so prophylaxis is seldom needed. Type 2 is a functional defect, and boosting release does not help. Postpartum haemorrhage is common in women with bleeding disorders.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Type 1 von Willebrand disease at 38 weeks, factor level 85 IU/dL. Prophylaxis before delivery?

Not needed; treat only below 50 IU/dL.

Common misconception That type 1 disease routinely needs prophylaxis

Type 2 von Willebrand disease with low levels before delivery. Boost release or replace the factor?

Replace von Willebrand factor; releasing a dysfunctional molecule achieves little.

Report a problem with entry 24: von Willebrand disease in pregnancy: bleeding risk rises at delivery; prophylaxis if vWF is under 50 IU/dL; type 1 rarely needs it (vWF rises), type 2 is a functional defect

Part 1025 / 88

von Willebrand disease type 1 in pregnancy: desmopressin when treatment is needed

If a pregnant woman who has von Willebrand disease type 1 needs treatment, give desmopressin first. It releases her own stored von Willebrand factor.

Why

Type 1 disease is a partial shortage of normal von Willebrand factor. The endothelium still stores the factor, so desmopressin can release it into the blood. That is why type 1 responds best of all the types. Type 3 has no stores, so desmopressin does nothing there. In pregnancy the factor level usually climbs above 50 international units/dL by the third trimester, so many women need no preventive treatment. Desmopressin is kept for those who stay low or who bleed.

The trap

Factor VIIa corrects Factor VII not vWF. It sounds like a strong, all-purpose clotting product, and von Willebrand disease feels like a missing-factor problem. But recombinant factor VIIa is for factor VII deficiency. It does not correct the shortage of von Willebrand factor. Desmopressin corrects that shortage by releasing the patient's own stores.

Evidence

In type 1 disease the factor usually rises by late pregnancy, so preventive treatment is often unnecessary, but desmopressin may be used. Type 1 responds best; type 3, lacking endothelial stores, does not. Factor VIIa is listed for factor VII deficiency.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Type 1 von Willebrand disease, level still under 50 IU/dL at term. First treatment?

Desmopressin, releasing her own stored factor.

Factor VIIa is proposed for a parturient whose von Willebrand disease is type 1. Why is it the wrong product?

It targets a different factor; desmopressin releases her own stores.

Common misconception That factor VIIa corrects von Willebrand disease

Report a problem with entry 25: von Willebrand disease type 1 in pregnancy: desmopressin when treatment is needed

Back to card 5Back to contents

Part 1 · DecisionsPlanning the caesarean anaesthetic

  1. 026Mallampati 4 with fetal distress for urgent caesarean: the anaesthetic plan
  2. 027Severe preeclampsia with visual symptoms: airway oedema can make intubation difficult; a platelet count, not a full coagulation profile, precedes neuraxial
  3. 028Cefazolin dose before caesarean by body weight
Part 1026 / 88

Mallampati 4 with fetal distress for urgent caesarean: the anaesthetic plan

Predicted difficult airway plus fetal distress, no epidural: give a rapid single-shot spinal by the most senior anaesthetist; platelets of 70,000 or more allow it.

Why

Inability to intubate and ventilate is the leading anaesthesia-related cause of maternal death, so the danger lies in any plan that makes her apnoeic before her airway is secured. A spinal leaves her breathing spontaneously. The obstetric airway guideline ranks maternal safety above fetal urgency and lists the anaesthetist's seniority among the factors in its airway decisions, hence the most senior anaesthetist. A fresh epidural takes too long to reach surgical block. If general anaesthesia cannot be avoided, intubate awake. Platelets of 70,000 or more carry low haematoma risk.

The trap

Awake fibreoptic safe but asleep induction apnoea. Fibreoptic sounds like the difficult-airway answer, but done asleep it induces apnoea first and then searches for the trachea in a patient with little reserve and a full stomach. The fibreoptic only protects her if she is awake and breathing; otherwise choose neuraxial.

Evidence

Barash advises neuraxial anaesthesia or awake intubation when airway difficulty is foreseen, and rapid sequence only when no such difficulty exists. The OAA/DAS guideline expects a route to summon a second anaesthetist. SOAP judges neuraxial reasonable at platelets of 70,000 or more.

Sources: Barash 9eOutside our books: The Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology Interdisciplinary Consensus Statement on Neuraxial Procedures in Obstetric Patients With Thrombocytopenia (2021)Outside our books: Obstetric Anaesthetists' Association and Difficult Airway Society guidelines for the management of difficult and failed tracheal intubation in obstetrics (2015)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Mallampati 4, fetal distress, no epidural, platelets 90,000, urgent caesarean. Anaesthetic?

Rapid single-shot spinal by the most senior anaesthetist.

Predicted difficult airway for caesarean: is fibreoptic intubation after induction a safe plan?

No; fibreoptic protects only if awake. Choose neuraxial.

Common misconception That asleep fibreoptic intubation is safe here

Report a problem with entry 26: Mallampati 4 with fetal distress for urgent caesarean: the anaesthetic plan

Part 1027 / 88

Severe preeclampsia with visual symptoms: airway oedema can make intubation difficult; a platelet count, not a full coagulation profile, precedes neuraxial

In severe preeclampsia, prepare for a difficult intubation from airway oedema, and check the platelet count, plus clinical bleeding signs, before any neuraxial block.

Why

Pregnancy already congests the upper airway. Preeclampsia makes this oedema worse, so laryngoscopy and passing the tube get harder, and losing the airway is a hazard that applies to every such patient. Separately, the disease can lower platelets, as in HELLP, or cause a coagulopathy, which raises concern about a spinal haematoma. Coagulation status must therefore be assessed before a block. In practice, the screen the sources name is a platelet count and a look for unexplained bleeding. A full clotting panel is not the default test.

The trap

Platelet count not full coagulation assessment. It sounds thorough and one review does say coagulation status should be assessed before a block. But the test actually recommended is a platelet count with clinical bleeding signs, not a routine full panel, whereas airway oedema making intubation difficult is true without conditions.

Evidence

Airway oedema, worse in coexisting preeclampsia, may make tracheal intubation difficult. Before regional anaesthesia in preeclampsia, check the platelet count, as HELLP syndrome can lower it, and assess coagulation status carefully, as coagulopathy may develop.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Severe pre-eclampsia with visual disturbance needs general anaesthesia for caesarean. Main airway concern?

Airway oedema; prepare for difficult intubation.

Before a spinal in severe pre-eclampsia, which check is the routine screen: full clotting panel or platelet count?

Platelet count plus a look for clinical bleeding.

Common misconception That a full clotting panel is the default test

Report a problem with entry 27: Severe preeclampsia with visual symptoms: airway oedema can make intubation difficult; a platelet count, not a full coagulation profile, precedes neuraxial

Part 1028 / 88

Cefazolin dose before caesarean by body weight

Give cefazolin 2 g before caesarean; increase to 3 g only if the woman weighs 120 kg or more, with exactly 120 kg qualifying.

Why

As body weight rises, cefazolin spreads through a larger volume of distribution, so a fixed dose gives lower tissue concentrations. Barash notes that morbidly obese patients need roughly double the usual dose to reach adequate tissue levels. Guidelines turn this into a single step. The standard 2 g covers most adults, including obese women, and the higher 3 g starts at 120 kg. Later outcome studies asked whether the extra gram really prevents infection. No trial has overturned the cut-off, so the step still applies.

The trap

Weight threshold 120kg mandates 3g not 2g. Two grams is the familiar caesarean dose, so 120 kg can feel like the edge of the higher band rather than inside it. The threshold includes 120 kg, so 3 g applies at that weight. A woman of 105 kg stays on 2 g.

Evidence

International guidelines reserve a raised 3 g cefazolin dose for patients weighing 120 kg or more. Whether 2 g or 3 g suffices at that weight needs large randomised trials. Morbidly obese patients need about double the usual dose for adequate tissue levels.

Sources: Outside our books: 1465. Two- versus Three-Gram Cefazolin Dosing for Surgical Prophylaxis in Colorectal Surgery Procedures (2023)Outside our books: Prophylactic Cefazolin Dosing and Surgical Site Infections: Does the Dose Matter in Obese Patients? (2018)Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Elective caesarean, weight exactly 120 kg. Cefazolin dose?

3 g intravenously.

Common misconception That 2 g suffices at exactly 120 kg

Caesarean in a woman weighing 104 kg. Cefazolin dose?

2 g, the standard dose.

Report a problem with entry 28: Cefazolin dose before caesarean by body weight

Back to card 6Back to contents

Part 1 · DecisionsSurgery and drugs during pregnancy

  1. 029Laparoscopy is safe in any trimester (SAGES)
  2. 030Fetal monitoring for non-obstetric surgery (ACOG)
  3. 031Reflux at 18 weeks: tracheal intubation under general anaesthesia
  4. 032Subarachnoid haemorrhage in pregnancy: the induction
  5. 033Paracetamol is the safest analgesic through pregnancy
  6. 034NSAIDs late in pregnancy close the ductus arteriosus early
Part 1029 / 88

Laparoscopy is safe in any trimester (SAGES)

Do not delay laparoscopy for pregnancy; it is acceptable in any trimester if carbon dioxide levels are kept normal and the fetus monitored perioperatively.

Why

In pregnancy, the reasons to choose laparoscopy are the same as outside it. Outcome data for appendicectomy show that trimester does not change the complication rate and conversion to open surgery is rarely needed, so gestational age alone is not a reason to avoid it. Absorbed insufflation CO₂ is the main physiological concern because maternal hypercapnia affects the foetus. Ventilate to keep CO₂ normal, and check the foetal heart before and after the procedure.

The trap

Fetal heart rate required pre and postoperatively. Fetal assessment really is recommended, so this option sounds correct. It fails because it describes a check after surgery only. The recommendation is to check fetal heart rate both before and after the procedure. The option also misses the main point, which is that surgery is safe in any trimester.

Evidence

A systematic review of laparoscopic appendicectomy in pregnancy found trimester did not affect complications, and conversion to open surgery occurred in under 1% of cases. Indications are the same as outside pregnancy. Keep carbon dioxide levels normal; check fetal heart rate before and after surgery.

Sources: Miller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Appendicitis at 26 weeks. Should laparoscopy be delayed or avoided because of the trimester?

No; laparoscopy is acceptable in any trimester.

During laparoscopy at 22 weeks, what ventilation target and fetal checks apply?

Keep carbon dioxide normal; check fetal heart before and after.

Common misconception That fetal checks are needed only after surgery

Report a problem with entry 29: Laparoscopy is safe in any trimester (SAGES)

Part 1030 / 88

Fetal monitoring for non-obstetric surgery (ACOG)

ACOG: check fetal heart before and after surgery (Doppler if previable; electronic heart-rate and contraction monitoring if viable); individualise intraoperative monitoring, never gestation-mandated.

Why

An intraoperative tracing is useful only if it can be read and acted on. This depends on fetal viability for emergency caesarean, whether a transducer can sit clear of the surgical field, maternal illness severity and the degree of fetal jeopardy. None follows a set gestational week, so the decision is made with the obstetrician for each case. The fixed minimum is a check before and after the procedure. Any small rise in preterm delivery is linked to the surgery itself, especially abdominal surgery.

The trap

Intraoperative monitoring individualised not mandated by week. Cut-offs around this gestational age do appear in pregnancy care for aspiration prophylaxis and uterine displacement, but ACOG sets no week after which intraoperative monitoring becomes compulsory. The only fixed requirement is checking before and after surgery; intraoperative monitoring is decided case by case.

Evidence

ACOG advises Doppler heart-rate checks before and after surgery in a previable pregnancy. In a viable one it advises electronic heart-rate and contraction monitoring before and after. Intraoperative monitoring is decided with the obstetrician, weighing gestation, type of surgery, maternal disease and fetal jeopardy.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Previable pregnancy at 16 weeks for cholecystectomy. How is the fetal heart checked?

Doppler before and after surgery.

At 30 weeks for non-obstetric surgery, is intraoperative fetal monitoring compulsory after a set week?

No; individualise with the obstetrician. Before and after is fixed.

Common misconception That a gestational cut-off mandates intraoperative monitoring

Report a problem with entry 30: Fetal monitoring for non-obstetric surgery (ACOG)

Part 1031 / 88

Reflux at 18 weeks: tracheal intubation under general anaesthesia

Beyond the first trimester, treat parturients as having a full stomach; for symptomatic reflux needing general anaesthesia, use rapid-sequence induction with a cuffed tracheal tube.

Why

Faust treats every woman past the first trimester as having a full stomach, so aspiration at induction is the main danger. Barash makes rapid-sequence induction with a cuffed tube routine after 20 weeks. Stoelting says the risk earlier than that is debated, so the choice depends on the patient and the procedure. Symptomatic reflux is one of those patient factors, and it settles the question in the second trimester. Only a cuffed tracheal tube, placed quickly, guards the lungs against regurgitated gastric contents.

The trap

Laryngeal mask inadequate for reflux aspiration risk. Dilatation and curettage (D&C) is short, and a supraglottic device looks enough for a brief case before mid-gestation. But this is a second-trimester woman with active reflux, so she counts as a full stomach. A laryngeal mask gives no protection against aspiration. She needs rapid-sequence induction and a cuffed tube.

Evidence

One text treats women beyond the first trimester as full stomach, advising intubation with rapid-sequence induction if general anaesthesia is chosen. Another makes cuffed-tube rapid-sequence induction usual after 20 weeks. A third calls the earlier period debated, with the decision depending on patient and procedure.

Sources: FaustBarash 9eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
At 17 weeks with symptomatic reflux, she needs general anaesthesia for a short procedure. Airway plan?

Rapid-sequence induction with a cuffed tracheal tube.

Brief second-trimester case, active heartburn. Is a laryngeal mask acceptable because the case is short?

No; treat as full stomach: rapid sequence, cuffed tube.

Common misconception That a supraglottic device suffices for a short case

Report a problem with entry 31: Reflux at 18 weeks: tracheal intubation under general anaesthesia

Part 1032 / 88

Subarachnoid haemorrhage in pregnancy: the induction

For a parturient with a cerebral bleed, use modified rapid sequence: lidocaine (or similar) pretreatment, propofol, then high-dose rocuronium or suxamethonium; never omit pretreatment.

Why

Laryngoscopy triggers a brief but steep rise in systemic pressure. Faust links that surge to cerebral bleeding in pre-eclamptic parturients and lists blunting agents, lidocaine among them; the list was written for pre-eclampsia, but it matters even more when a cerebral vessel has already bled and a pressure spike could rebleed it. Faust's own recipe pairs propofol with suxamethonium; Barash explains that suxamethonium was the historical favourite, yet with sugammadex available high-dose rocuronium now achieves rapid deep blockade safely, so either keeps the rapid sequence intact.

The trap

Standard recipe omits blunting of laryngoscopy surge. It copies the standard obstetric general anaesthetic recipe and protects against aspiration in a vomiting parturient, so it feels safest. It fails because nothing blunts the laryngoscopy pressure surge, and that surge is exactly what threatens a cerebral vessel that has already bled.

Evidence

Faust warns that the pressor surge of intubation in pre-eclampsia risks cerebral haemorrhage, and reports that pretreatment with lidocaine, esmolol or vasodilators blunts it. Barash states that high-dose rocuronium, reversible with sugammadex, can safely replace suxamethonium for rapid deep blockade.

Sources: FaustBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A parturient with a subarachnoid bleed needs general anaesthesia. Induction sequence?

Lidocaine pretreatment, propofol, then high-dose rocuronium or suxamethonium.

A plain propofol-suxamethonium rapid sequence is planned for a pregnant woman with a cerebral bleed. What is missing?

Pretreatment to blunt the laryngoscopy pressure surge.

Common misconception That a standard rapid sequence without pretreatment is safest

Report a problem with entry 32: Subarachnoid haemorrhage in pregnancy: the induction

Part 1033 / 88

Paracetamol is the safest analgesic through pregnancy

Use paracetamol for pain throughout pregnancy. Allow NSAIDs only in limited doses at 20–30 weeks; never repeatedly early on or after 30 weeks.

Why

Paracetamol, oral or intravenous, has no known stage-specific harm in pregnancy. NSAID risk depends on timing: repeated early doses are linked to miscarriage and malformation; after 30 weeks they can close the fetal ductus early. Miller's judges limited doses at 20 to 30 weeks likely safe, but the FDA now warns that from 20 weeks NSAIDs can reduce fetal urine output and amniotic fluid, so give only a short, lowest-dose course and check the fluid if prolonged. Systemic opioids can blunt fetal heart rate variability. Only paracetamol is safe throughout.

The trap

Ibuprofen for chronic pain throughout pregnancy. Ibuprofen seems natural for chronic joint pain, and a short mid-pregnancy course is tolerated. But this patient needs relief from the first trimester until delivery, risking repeated early exposure, kidney and fluid problems the FDA warns of from 20 weeks, and ductal closure after 30 weeks.

Evidence

Paracetamol, oral or intravenous, is widely accepted as safe in pregnancy. Repeated early NSAID use risks miscarriage and malformation; after 30 weeks, ductal closure and oligohydramnios. Miller's calls limited doses at 20 to 30 weeks likely safe. Systemic opioids may reduce fetal heart rate variability.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A 28-week primigravida with chronic joint pain needs analgesia until delivery. Which agent has no known stage-specific harm in pregnancy?

Paracetamol, oral or intravenous, at any stage.

A woman with chronic joint pain asks for ibuprofen from the first trimester until term, as a short course was fine before. Why is this poor?

Early repeats risk miscarriage; fluid loss from 20 weeks; ductal closure after 30.

Common misconception That a tolerated short mid-pregnancy NSAID course makes long-term use safe

Report a problem with entry 33: Paracetamol is the safest analgesic through pregnancy

Part 1034 / 88

NSAIDs late in pregnancy close the ductus arteriosus early

Avoid NSAIDs such as ketorolac and indomethacin from 30 weeks: they close the ductus early, never late; at 20–30 weeks only a short lowest-dose course.

Why

Cyclo-oxygenase blockade late in pregnancy makes the fetal ductus constrict while the fetus is still in utero, and it impairs fetal kidney function so amniotic fluid falls. Indomethacin-type tocolytics also risk fetal intracranial haemorrhage and necrotising enterocolitis. Timing decides the risk: repeated early doses risk miscarriage and malformation. Miller places ductal harm after 30 weeks and judges limited doses at 20 to 30 weeks likely safe; the FDA warns the fluid effect can begin from 20 weeks, so in that band use the lowest dose briefly and check the fluid.

The trap

Delayed ductal closure or polyhydramnios. People remember the ductus as the signature fetal effect of NSAIDs but reverse its direction. Cyclo-oxygenase blockade shuts the ductus prematurely in utero; it never delays closure. Likewise, the fluid effect is oligohydramnios, not polyhydramnios.

Evidence

Miller links repeated early use to miscarriage and malformation, and use after 30 weeks to early ductal closure and oligohydramnios, while calling limited doses at 20 to 30 weeks likely safe. Barash notes third-trimester ductal and kidney harm; Faust adds fetal intracranial haemorrhage.

Sources: Miller 10eFaustBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A woman at 32 weeks is given ketorolac for pain. What happens to the fetal ductus arteriosus, and what happens to amniotic fluid?

Ductus closes early in utero; amniotic fluid falls (oligohydramnios).

Which is NOT a feared fetal effect of NSAIDs late in pregnancy: premature ductal closure, oligohydramnios, delayed ductal closure, or impaired fetal kidney function?

The odd one out · Delayed ductal closure; NSAIDs shut the ductus early and reduce fluid.

Common misconception That NSAIDs delay ductal closure or cause polyhydramnios

Report a problem with entry 34: NSAIDs late in pregnancy close the ductus arteriosus early

Back to card 7Back to contents

Part 1 · DecisionsDrugs that contract or relax the uterus

  1. 035Asthma: oxytocin is the safe uterotonic; carboprost causes bronchospasm and methylergometrine hypertension
  2. 036Bronchospasm after a second uterotonic in an asthmatic: carboprost, a prostaglandin F2-alpha
  3. 037Volatile anaesthetics relax the uterus dose-dependently; propofol, ketamine, nitrous oxide and opioids do not
  4. 038Delivering a breech second twin: nitroglycerin relaxes the uterus
Part 1035 / 88

Asthma: oxytocin is the safe uterotonic; carboprost causes bronchospasm and methylergometrine hypertension

In asthma or pre-eclampsia, use oxytocin as uterotonic; avoid carboprost (bronchospasm) and methylergometrine (hypertension, vasospasm).

Why

Oxytocin contracts the uterus without constricting the airways or raising blood pressure. Its main risk is vasodilation and hypotension after a rapid large bolus, so give it slowly. Carboprost is a prostaglandin F2-alpha analogue. It constricts the bronchi and raises pulmonary vascular resistance, which is dangerous in reactive airways. Methylergometrine is an ergot alkaloid. It causes widespread vasoconstriction and coronary vasospasm, and the resulting hypertension is harmful in pre-eclampsia. Nitroglycerin relaxes the uterus, so it cannot treat atony.

The trap

Ergot causes vasospasm contraindicated with hypertension. People remember that prostaglandin F2-alpha is the drug to avoid in asthma. They then assume the ergot, the usual second-line drug, is harmless. But its hazard is hypertension and vasospasm, which rules it out in pre-eclampsia. Only oxytocin is endorsed for both asthma and hypertensive disease.

Evidence

Mayo calls oxytocin the first-line drug for uterine atony and says it is acceptable in asthma or hypertensive disorders; a large IV bolus causes hypotension. Barash links methylergonovine with hypertension and coronary vasospasm, and carboprost with bronchospasm. Faust also lists bronchospasm for carboprost.

Sources: Mayo reviewBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Atonic bleeding in a woman with severe asthma. Uterotonic of choice?

Oxytocin, given slowly.

Asthma plus pre-eclampsia, oxytocin running, carboprost excluded. Is the ergot alkaloid the next safe choice?

No; it causes hypertension and vasospasm, harmful in pre-eclampsia.

Common misconception That the ergot is safe once carboprost is excluded

Report a problem with entry 35: Asthma: oxytocin is the safe uterotonic; carboprost causes bronchospasm and methylergometrine hypertension

Part 1036 / 88

Bronchospasm after a second uterotonic in an asthmatic: carboprost, a prostaglandin F2-alpha

Wheeze after a second uterotonic in an asthmatic points to carboprost, a prostaglandin F2α analogue; in asthma avoid it unless other agents fail.

Why

Carboprost is a prostaglandin F2α analogue: it drives smooth muscle to contract, which tightens the atonic uterus but can also constrict bronchi in susceptible airways, so asthmatics wheeze and desaturate. One text lists it after both oxytocin and an ergot have failed, but the ergot is relatively contraindicated in hypertension and is often bypassed, so carboprost may be the second drug given. Identify it by the bronchospasm, not its place in the sequence. One text urges caution in asthma, another calls it contraindicated; reconcile by withholding it unless alternatives fail.

The trap

Carboprost causes bronchospasm via airway smooth muscle. Muscarinic stimulation does constrict the airways, so it seems to explain the wheeze. But none of the listed uterotonics works that way. The drug whose listed side effect is bronchospasm is the prostaglandin F2α analogue, which contracts airway smooth muscle as well as the uterus.

Evidence

The texts list bronchospasm as the leading side effect of the prostaglandin F2α analogue. They advise caution or outright avoidance in asthma and place it after oxytocin and the ergot, which is itself relatively contraindicated in hypertension.

Sources: Mayo reviewMiller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
An asthmatic with postpartum haemorrhage wheezes and desaturates after her second uterotonic. Which drug?

Carboprost, a prostaglandin F2α analogue.

In asthma, when may carboprost still be used?

Cautiously, as a last resort when other uterotonics fail.

Report a problem with entry 36: Bronchospasm after a second uterotonic in an asthmatic: carboprost, a prostaglandin F2-alpha

Part 1037 / 88

Volatile anaesthetics relax the uterus dose-dependently; propofol, ketamine, nitrous oxide and opioids do not

The volatile halogenated agent is the anaesthetic drug that lowers uterine tone, and higher concentrations lower it more. Nitrous oxide leaves uterine activity unchanged.

Why

Volatile agents relax uterine smooth muscle the same way they relax vascular smooth muscle. As the concentration rises, spontaneous myometrial contraction falls, and every volatile does this to a similar degree. At low concentrations the effect is small. At 0.5 MAC the relaxation is clear, although the uterus still responds to oxytocin. A relaxed uterus is an atonic uterus, so bleeding risk rises, especially in multiparous women. Nitrous oxide is not halogenated and does not have this relaxing action.

The trap

Propofol non-volatile doesn't relax myometrium. It is an inhaled anaesthetic given at a high concentration, so people group it with isoflurane and sevoflurane. It is not a halogenated volatile, though, and it does not relax the myometrium. Uterine activity is unaffected.

Evidence

The review and textbook sources agree. Every halogenated volatile, including isoflurane and sevoflurane, reduces myometrial contractility in proportion to dose. The relaxation is significant by 0.5 MAC and raises haemorrhage risk, particularly in multiparous women. Nitrous oxide does not change uterine activity.

Sources: Mayo reviewBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Which anaesthetic lowers uterine tone, more so at higher concentration?

A volatile halogenated agent such as sevoflurane.

Does nitrous oxide at a high inspired fraction relax the myometrium like isoflurane?

No; uterine activity is unchanged.

Common misconception That nitrous oxide relaxes the uterus like volatiles

Report a problem with entry 37: Volatile anaesthetics relax the uterus dose-dependently; propofol, ketamine, nitrous oxide and opioids do not

Part 1038 / 88

Delivering a breech second twin: nitroglycerin relaxes the uterus

When a breech second twin needs manipulation, relax the uterus with a small IV bolus of nitroglycerin instead of inducing general anaesthesia or giving oxytocin.

Why

After the first twin is born, the uterus contracts around the second twin, making breech extraction difficult and risking entrapment of the aftercoming head. The obstetrician needs uterine relaxation, which analgesia alone does not provide. High-concentration volatile anaesthesia formerly achieved this but requires general anaesthesia and a secured airway. Intravenous nitroglycerin now gives rapid, brief relaxation without airway risk. Once the baby is delivered, it is stopped so the uterus can contract again and bleeding is limited.

The trap

Local anaesthetic top-up cannot relax uterus. An epidural is already running, so topping it up seems like the natural next step before an operative delivery. But the problem here is a contracted uterus, not pain. A local anaesthetic top-up does not relax uterine muscle, so the second twin can still be trapped.

Evidence

Barash says volatile agents at high MAC can relax the uterus for second-twin and breech manoeuvres, but IV nitroglycerin 50 to 250 μg has mostly taken over this role. Miller says relaxants are stopped after delivery so the uterus contracts and haemorrhage is reduced.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Second twin breech, uterus clamped down after twin one, epidural running. How do you relax the uterus quickly?

Small IV nitroglycerin bolus.

Will a concentrated bupivacaine epidural top-up free a trapped breech second twin?

No; local anaesthetic does not relax the uterus. Use nitroglycerin.

Common misconception That a local anaesthetic top-up relaxes the uterus

Report a problem with entry 38: Delivering a breech second twin: nitroglycerin relaxes the uterus

Back to card 8Back to contents

Part 2 · RecognitionNormal pregnancy or not

  1. 039Pregnancy lowers FRC, expiratory reserve and residual volume; tidal volume and minute ventilation rise
  2. 040Respiratory alkalosis of pregnancy: PaCO2 about 28-32 mmHg from raised minute ventilation, bicarbonate falls to compensate
  3. 041Cardiovascular and blood changes at term: cardiac output and red cell mass rise, systemic vascular resistance falls
  4. 042Coagulation in pregnancy: fibrinogen and most factors rise, factors XI and XIII fall, II and V stay unchanged, protein S falls (hypercoagulable)
  5. 043Liver in pregnancy: blood flow unchanged, plasma cholinesterase and albumin fall
  6. 044Normal pregnancy heart sounds: accentuated split S1, a third sound and a benign systolic ejection murmur
  7. 045Pregnancy makes the airway difficult: breast enlargement, mucosal oedema, weight gain
  8. 046Gastric function and aspiration risk normalise within about a day of delivery, not weeks
  9. 047Insulin resistance of pregnancy comes from placental hormones (human placental lactogen)
  10. 048Fasting in labour produces ketosis
  11. 049Thromboxane in pregnancy promotes platelet aggregation
Part 2039 / 88

Pregnancy lowers FRC, expiratory reserve and residual volume; tidal volume and minute ventilation rise

At term, ERV, residual volume and FRC fall. Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve rise. Lung compliance does not fall and airway resistance does not rise.

Why

The growing uterus pushes the diaphragm upward, so the lungs sit at a smaller volume once a normal breath has been exhaled. Expiratory reserve and residual volume both shrink. FRC is their sum, so it falls too. Otherwise the static lung volumes are largely kept, and inspiratory reserve rises slightly. The lung tissue does not get stiffer, so intrinsic compliance is unchanged. Bronchial flow on spirometry is unaltered, so airway resistance does not increase. Tidal volume, meanwhile, climbs substantially.

The trap

Pregnancy shrinks expiratory not inspiratory reserve. A raised diaphragm looks as if it should shrink every lung volume, including the inspiratory ones. It does not. The loss is at the bottom of the breath, in expiratory reserve and residual volume. Inspiratory reserve is kept and even rises slightly.

Evidence

At term, tidal volume rises by about 40% to 45% and inspiratory reserve by about 5%, while ERV and residual volume both fall. Apart from the fall in FRC, static lung function is unchanged. Intrinsic compliance is unaffected, and bronchial flow on spirometry is unaltered.

Sources: Mayo reviewStoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
At term, which lung volumes fall?

Expiratory reserve volume, residual volume and FRC.

With the diaphragm pushed up at term, does inspiratory reserve volume shrink?

No; it is kept and rises slightly.

Common misconception That the raised diaphragm shrinks inspiratory volumes

Report a problem with entry 39: Pregnancy lowers FRC, expiratory reserve and residual volume; tidal volume and minute ventilation rise

Part 2040 / 88

Respiratory alkalosis of pregnancy: PaCO2 about 28-32 mmHg from raised minute ventilation, bicarbonate falls to compensate

In pregnancy, expect PaCO2 28-32 mmHg, low bicarbonate and near-normal pH. The cause is raised minute ventilation, and labour pain raises it further.

Why

Hormonal drive makes a pregnant woman breathe about 50% more each minute by term. Carbon dioxide is cleared faster than it is produced, so PaCO2 settles well below the non-pregnant level. This is a chronic respiratory alkalosis. The kidneys compensate by excreting bicarbonate, so serum bicarbonate falls by about 4 mEq/L and pH stays only slightly alkalotic. In labour, pain can push ventilation even higher and drive PaCO2 lower still.

The trap

FRC falls at term, which seems to fit the pregnancy answer. However, FRC is a resting lung volume that sets oxygen reserve and the rate of desaturation; it does not govern carbon dioxide clearance. Low PaCO2 with compensatory bicarbonate fall results from increased ventilation, not reduced lung volume.

Evidence

Hormone-driven hyperventilation, with minute ventilation up by half at term, causes a respiratory alkalosis with PaCO2 of 28-32 mmHg. Renal loss of bicarbonate, averaging about 4 mEq/L, keeps pH only mildly alkalotic. Labour pain can occasionally drop PaCO2 below 20 mmHg.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Typical arterial blood gas pattern at 36 weeks?

PaCO2 28-32 mmHg, low bicarbonate, near-normal pH.

What causes the low PaCO2 of pregnancy: the smaller FRC or something else?

Raised minute ventilation, not the smaller FRC.

Common misconception That reduced FRC causes the low PaCO2

Report a problem with entry 40: Respiratory alkalosis of pregnancy: PaCO2 about 28-32 mmHg from raised minute ventilation, bicarbonate falls to compensate

Part 2041 / 88

Cardiovascular and blood changes at term: cardiac output and red cell mass rise, systemic vascular resistance falls

At term, cardiac output, stroke volume, heart rate and red cell mass all rise. SVR falls, and blood pressure stays the same or drops slightly.

Why

Plasma volume grows by about 45%. Red cell volume also grows, but by less: Stoelting gives 20–25% and Faust 10–15%. The sources differ on how much, but both say it rises. Because plasma outpaces cells, the blood is diluted and haemoglobin and haematocrit fall even though red cell mass is higher. Cardiac output rises about 40% through both stroke volume and heart rate. Systemic vascular resistance falls about 15% at the same time, so arterial pressure stays level or dips. Diastolic pressure dips most.

The trap

Systemic vascular resistance falls with increased output. Many people picture pregnancy-induced hypertension and assume resistance climbs along with output. In normal pregnancy resistance actually falls. That is why a much larger cardiac output leaves blood pressure level or slightly lower. A fall in SVR is a real, expected change at term.

Evidence

The tables show plasma volume, red cell volume, cardiac output, stroke volume and heart rate all rising, while vascular resistance falls. Systolic pressure is unchanged or slightly lower, diastolic pressure falls, and haemoglobin and haematocrit drop because of dilution.

Sources: Stoelting 8eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
At term, which way do cardiac output, heart rate and red cell mass move?

All rise.

With cardiac output up about 40% at term, what keeps blood pressure level?

Systemic vascular resistance falls.

Common misconception That vascular resistance rises in normal pregnancy

Report a problem with entry 41: Cardiovascular and blood changes at term: cardiac output and red cell mass rise, systemic vascular resistance falls

Part 2042 / 88

Coagulation in pregnancy: fibrinogen and most factors rise, factors XI and XIII fall, II and V stay unchanged, protein S falls (hypercoagulable)

In pregnancy, fibrinogen and most factors (VII, VIII, IX, X, XII) rise, XI and XIII fall, II and V stay unchanged, and protein S falls.

Why

Pregnancy pushes the balance of clotting towards thrombosis. Most procoagulant factors rise, fibrinogen the most, and natural anticoagulants weaken: protein S and antithrombin fall, and resistance to activated protein C develops even though Miller finds protein C levels unchanged. This imbalance explains why venous thromboembolism is more common in pregnancy. The sources differ on a few factors. One Barash thrombosis list counts II and XIII as raised. Barash's physiology section and Miller both say XI and XIII fall, and Miller keeps II and V unchanged. Use that shared pattern.

The trap

Factor XIII falls despite general factor rise. Nearly every clotting factor rises in pregnancy, so it feels safe to assume XIII rises too, and one thrombosis list even includes it. But the obstetric physiology sections of both major texts put XIII with XI as falling, so a rise in XIII is not the expected change.

Evidence

Miller: factors XI and XIII fall; II and V usually unchanged; protein S and antithrombin fall, protein C holds. Stoelting: anticoagulant activity drops, while fibrinogen and factors XII, X, IX, VIII, VII and I rise. Barash adds acquired protein C resistance.

Sources: Miller 10eStoelting 8eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Which clotting proteins fall in normal pregnancy?

Factors XI and XIII, and protein S.

Fibrinogen and factor VIII climb in pregnancy. Does factor XIII climb too?

No; XIII falls with XI. II and V are unchanged.

Common misconception That factor XIII rises in pregnancy

Report a problem with entry 42: Coagulation in pregnancy: fibrinogen and most factors rise, factors XI and XIII fall, II and V stay unchanged, protein S falls (hypercoagulable)

Part 2043 / 88

Liver in pregnancy: blood flow unchanged, plasma cholinesterase and albumin fall

In pregnancy, liver blood flow stays about the same. Albumin, total protein and plasma cholinesterase fall modestly, and succinylcholine needs no dose change.

Why

Pregnancy does not meaningfully change liver perfusion. Options saying flow rises, the liver becomes congested, or compression cuts flow are therefore wrong. What changes is the level of proteins the liver makes. The expanded plasma volume dilutes them, and the liver also makes less cholinesterase. At term albumin is about 25% lower and total protein about 10% lower. Cholinesterase activity falls by roughly 25% to 30% from week 10 until postpartum week 6. That fall is too small to prolong a suxamethonium block.

The trap

Cholinesterase reduction insufficient to prolong paralysis. It is tempting because the direction and the timing are right and it sounds like textbook wording. But it overstates the size of the fall. Cholinesterase activity drops by only about a quarter to a third, which is why suxamethonium block is not meaningfully prolonged.

Evidence

Pregnancy does not significantly change liver blood flow. At term, albumin is 25% lower and total protein 10% lower. Cholinesterase activity falls 25–30% from week 10 to postpartum week 6, from dilution and reduced hepatic synthesis, without needing succinylcholine dose change.

Sources: Miller 10eFaustBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Does liver blood flow change in pregnancy?

No, it stays about the same.

How far does plasma cholinesterase fall in pregnancy, and does the suxamethonium dose change?

About 25–30%; give the usual suxamethonium dose.

Common misconception That cholinesterase falls by about 60%

Report a problem with entry 43: Liver in pregnancy: blood flow unchanged, plasma cholinesterase and albumin fall

Part 2044 / 88

Normal pregnancy heart sounds: accentuated split S1, a third sound and a benign systolic ejection murmur

Normal pregnancy: louder, wider-split S1, an S3 and a systolic ejection murmur. Diastolic murmurs are abnormal; without a systolic option, choose accentuated S1.

Why

Pregnancy increases blood volume and cardiac output. The mitral and tricuspid valves close asynchronously, so S1 becomes louder and more widely split. Extra volume and turbulent flow produce an S3 late in pregnancy and sometimes an S4; neither is significant alone. The enlarged heart stretches the tricuspid annulus, causing mild regurgitation, heard as a benign systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border. The sources describe no change in the second heart sound.

The trap

Diastolic murmur signals valve disease not normal. When asked for a pregnancy murmur, people pick the only murmur on offer, reasoning that a hyperdynamic circulation makes murmurs. But the benign pregnancy murmur is systolic, coming from tricuspid regurgitation during contraction. A diastolic murmur is not among the normal findings and should prompt a search for valve disease.

Evidence

The obstetric anaesthesia text lists these normal findings: an accentuated S1 with more splitting from out-of-step atrioventricular valve closure; a frequent S3 in the third trimester; an occasional S4; and a benign systolic ejection murmur heard along the left sternal border from mild tricuspid regurgitation.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Thirty-four weeks: a soft murmur in systole near the left sternal edge, plus an S3. What do these mean?

Expected physiological changes; no action needed.

A new diastolic murmur is heard at 30 weeks. Normal for pregnancy?

No; always abnormal. Look for valve disease.

Common misconception That a diastolic murmur is normal in pregnancy

Report a problem with entry 44: Normal pregnancy heart sounds: accentuated split S1, a third sound and a benign systolic ejection murmur

Part 2045 / 88

Pregnancy makes the airway difficult: breast enlargement, mucosal oedema, weight gain

In pregnancy, breast enlargement and vascular, swollen airway mucosa make laryngoscopy hard; FRC falls, oxygen demand rises, and oesophageal sphincter tone drops.

Why

Enlarged breasts crowd the space between chest and chin, so the laryngoscope handle is awkward to insert. The lining of the upper airway becomes engorged, so it swells and bleeds easily. Pre-eclampsia worsens that swelling, so the risk is greater in that patient but the same kind of problem. Separately, a smaller FRC and higher oxygen needs shorten safe apnoea, and weaker sphincter tone favours reflux. These make desaturation and aspiration more dangerous, but they do not physically obstruct intubation.

The trap

Pregnancy lowers reserve making difficult airway myth. FRC dominates teaching on obstetric oxygenation, and head-up positioning is recommended partly to raise it, so 'increase' sounds familiar. Pregnancy actually lowers FRC. Even a larger reserve would make airway management easier, not harder.

Evidence

Enlarged breasts can obstruct insertion of the laryngoscope. The upper airway mucosa becomes vascular and oedematous, with swelling and bleeding risk, and this oedema is worse with pre-eclampsia. Reduced FRC and raised oxygen demand speed desaturation, and sphincter tone falls, promoting reflux.

Sources: Outside our books: Obstetric Anaesthetists' Association and Difficult Airway Society guidelines for the management of difficult and failed tracheal intubation in obstetrics (2015)Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Which pregnancy changes physically hinder laryngoscopy?

Breast enlargement and swollen, vascular airway mucosa.

Does FRC rise or fall in pregnancy, and does that make laryngoscopy harder?

It falls; this speeds desaturation but does not hinder laryngoscopy.

Common misconception That FRC increases in pregnancy

Report a problem with entry 45: Pregnancy makes the airway difficult: breast enlargement, mucosal oedema, weight gain

Part 2046 / 88

Gastric function and aspiration risk normalise within about a day of delivery, not weeks

Gastric emptying and aspiration risk return to normal within about a day of delivery, not weeks. Until then, treat the new mother as aspiration-prone.

Why

Most of the aspiration risk in pregnancy comes from hormones. Progesterone lowers lower oesophageal sphincter tone and slows gastric emptying, and the placenta is its main source. Once the placenta is delivered, progesterone starts to fall within hours and is back to normal within a day (Faust). The three sources give different times but agree with each other. Gastric emptying recovers first, by 18 hours (obstetric airway guideline). The rest of the gut follows by one to two days (Barash). None of them gives weeks.

The trap

Stomach recovery confused with puerperium. Six weeks is the length of the puerperium, when many other pregnancy changes are taught to resolve, so it feels like the safe default. But the stomach changes depend on placental progesterone, which falls within hours of delivery, so they resolve within about a day.

Evidence

The obstetric airway guideline says gastric emptying is normal by 18 hours after delivery. Faust says progesterone starts falling 2 hours postpartum and is normal within 24 hours. Barash says the gut changes of pregnancy resolve by 24 to 48 hours postpartum.

Sources: Outside our books: Obstetric Anaesthetists' Association and Difficult Airway Society guidelines for the management of difficult and failed tracheal intubation in obstetrics (2015)Barash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Six hours after delivery she needs general anaesthesia for retained products. Treat as aspiration-prone?

Yes; the risk normalises only within about a day.

How long after delivery does gastric aspiration risk return to normal: about a day or six weeks?

About a day, as placental progesterone falls.

Common misconception That it takes six weeks

Report a problem with entry 46: Gastric function and aspiration risk normalise within about a day of delivery, not weeks

Part 2047 / 88

Insulin resistance of pregnancy comes from placental hormones (human placental lactogen)

Pregnancy's insulin resistance is hormonal. Placental lactogen, progesterone, oestrogen and cortisol oppose insulin's action, and the resistance clears quickly after delivery.

Why

During pregnancy, hormones that counter insulin rise: placental lactogen, progesterone, oestrogen and cortisol, which goes up 2.5-fold by term. They reduce how well maternal tissues respond to insulin. This is a problem of insulin action, not of insulin supply. The resistance comes from the placenta and the pregnancy hormonal state, so it resolves soon after birth. Despite the resistance, fasting glucose is lower than outside pregnancy because the fetus takes up a lot of glucose.

The trap

Low insulin secretion mistaken for resistance. Too little insulin also raises glucose, so it sounds plausible. But low secretion means insulin deficiency, not resistance. Resistance means the tissues respond poorly to insulin that is there. In pregnancy this comes from placental and other hormones, and it goes away once the placenta is delivered.

Evidence

Stoelting says pregnancy's insulin resistance comes from more activity of progesterone, oestrogen, cortisol (up 2.5-fold at term) and placental lactogen. It resolves quickly after delivery. Fasting glucose is lower in pregnancy because the fetus uses a lot of glucose.

Sources: Stoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
What causes the insulin resistance of pregnancy?

Placental lactogen, progesterone, oestrogen and cortisol opposing insulin.

Is the higher glucose tendency of pregnancy due to reduced insulin secretion?

No; tissues resist insulin's action, clearing after delivery.

Common misconception That insulin secretion falls

Report a problem with entry 47: Insulin resistance of pregnancy comes from placental hormones (human placental lactogen)

Part 2048 / 88

Fasting in labour produces ketosis

Expect ketosis in a fasting labouring woman. Without diabetes it is harmless and settles once she eats carbohydrate. It does not need routine intravenous fluids.

Why

With no carbohydrate coming in, the body burns fat instead, and ketone bodies build up. This is starvation ketosis. National intrapartum guidance calls it a normal adaptation to fasting in women without diabetes. It settles on its own once she eats, so the old habit of giving drips for it is unnecessary. The exception is a woman taking an SGLT-inhibitor. Fasting can amplify the same process into ketoacidosis with near-normal glucose, so look for an anion-gap acidosis with ketonaemia.

The trap

Gallstone formation from labour fasting. Gallstones are tempting because pregnancy slows bile flow and raises the risk of stones. But stones form over weeks to months. They are not a product of a few hours without food in labour. The immediate metabolic result of fasting is ketone production.

Evidence

Intrapartum guidance describes ketosis in women without diabetes as a normal, usually self-limiting result of fasting. It clears with oral carbohydrate, and routine intravenous fluids are not needed. Ketoacidosis should be suspected when ketones come with an anion-gap acidosis.

Sources: Outside our books: Intrapartum care, NICE guideline NG235 — [P] Supporting document for the recommendations on fluid balance and peripartum hyponatraemia (2025)AHA/ACC 2024 · §6.3

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Nil by mouth for 14 hours in labour, no diabetes, ketones in the urine. Explanation?

Expected starvation ketosis; harmless.

Does that fasting ketosis need routine intravenous fluids?

No; it settles once she eats carbohydrate.

Report a problem with entry 48: Fasting in labour produces ketosis

Part 2049 / 88

Thromboxane in pregnancy promotes platelet aggregation

Thromboxane A2 favours clotting and constriction. In pregnancy, as elsewhere, its biological action is to increase platelet aggregation, which prostacyclin opposes.

Why

COX-1 makes thromboxane A2. It causes platelets to clump and narrows blood vessels. Prostacyclin and nitric oxide do the opposite: they dilate vessels and keep uterine perfusion high. A healthy pregnancy depends on these two sides staying in balance. In pre-eclampsia, the damaged endothelium produces fewer dilating eicosanoids and more platelets are activated. The balance then tips further towards thromboxane, so the spiral arteries constrict and uterine flow falls.

The trap

Thromboxane vasodilation in pregnancy assumed. Pregnancy is known to raise uterine perfusion, and prostaglandins are often thought of as vasodilators, so this looks like a normal pregnancy effect. Thromboxane actually constricts vessels. Too much of it reduces uterine flow, as in pre-eclampsia. The dilating role belongs to prostacyclin and nitric oxide.

Evidence

Thromboxane A2 is made by COX-1 and drives platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. In pre-eclampsia, endothelial injury activates platelets and shifts the prostacyclin–thromboxane balance. With less nitric oxide and fewer dilating eicosanoids, uterine blood flow falls and the spiral arteries constrict.

Sources: Miller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
What is the biological action of thromboxane A2 in pregnancy?

Increases platelet aggregation and constricts vessels.

Does thromboxane raise uterine blood flow in pregnancy?

No; it constricts. Prostacyclin and nitric oxide dilate.

Common misconception That thromboxane increases uterine flow

Report a problem with entry 49: Thromboxane in pregnancy promotes platelet aggregation

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Part 2 · RecognitionThe fetal heart trace

  1. 050Early decelerations after a labour epidural are head compression and need no action
  2. 051Abnormal fetal trace and a labour epidural: before insertion discuss with the obstetrician; after a bolus check maternal vitals and call the obstetrician
  3. 052Uterine rupture: fetal heart rate abnormality is the most reliable sign
Part 2050 / 88

Early decelerations after a labour epidural are head compression and need no action

An early deceleration that mirrors each contraction after epidural insertion is benign head compression. Confirm the mother is comfortable and continue routine care without intervening.

Why

During a contraction, pressure on the fetal head triggers a vagal reflex that slows the heart. The dip is shallow, usually under 20 beats/min, and starts and recovers with the contraction, mirroring it. It does not indicate hypoxaemia or acidosis. A tracing with early decelerations can still be normal if the baseline rate is 110–160 bpm, variability is moderate, and there are no late or variable decelerations. Seeing it straight after a block does not mean the epidural has harmed the fetus.

The trap

Normal reflex escalation after block. People escalate when any deceleration appears minutes after a block, fearing epidural fetal harm. But a smooth, shallow dip matching each contraction is a vagal reflex within a normal tracing, so escalation adds nothing. Only late or recurrent variable decelerations need action.

Evidence

Several texts agree that early decelerations are shallow, usually under 20 beats/min, and track the contraction. They come from vagal slowing caused by head compression and are not linked to fetal compromise, hypoxaemia or acidosis. The three-tier system allows them within a Category I tracing.

Sources: Mayo reviewBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Twenty minutes after an epidural, shallow dips mirror each contraction; baseline 135, moderate variability. Action?

None beyond routine care; confirm comfort. Benign head compression.

Does that mirrored trace mean the block has made the fetus hypoxaemic?

No; it is a vagal reflex within a normal tracing.

Common misconception That any deceleration after a block needs escalation

Report a problem with entry 50: Early decelerations after a labour epidural are head compression and need no action

Part 2051 / 88

Abnormal fetal trace and a labour epidural: before insertion discuss with the obstetrician; after a bolus check maternal vitals and call the obstetrician

Abnormal trace before an epidural: involve the obstetrician first. Late decelerations after a bolus: recheck maternal vital signs, treat hypotension, and summon the obstetrician.

Why

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations marks a category III trace, which signals fetal acidaemia and needs urgent assessment. In-utero resuscitation targets reversible causes, maternal hypotension, aortocaval compression, excess uterine activity, but if the trace fails to recover, delivery, often operative, must follow quickly, and only the obstetrician delivers. So an abnormal trace before siting means the obstetric team must know and plan first. After a bolus, sympathetic block makes maternal hypotension the prime suspect: fresh vital signs detect it, and the obstetrician must be present in case resuscitation fails.

The trap

Oxygen as initial fetal resuscitation. Oxygen is tempting because supplemental oxygen is a listed in-utero resuscitation measure. But it neither detects nor corrects the likely culprit after a bolus, maternal hypotension, and it does nothing to bring the obstetrician who must deliver if the trace persists.

Evidence

Category III traces are abnormal, imply fetal acid–base disturbance and demand prompt evaluation. Resuscitation includes treating maternal hypotension with fluid or vasopressor, oxygen and tocolysis; if the trace does not improve, expedited delivery follows.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Category III trace before you site a requested labour epidural. First step?

Involve the obstetrician first.

Late decelerations appear ten minutes after an epidural bolus. Is nasal oxygen the key step?

No; recheck maternal vitals, treat hypotension, summon the obstetrician.

Common misconception That supplemental oxygen is the main step

Report a problem with entry 51: Abnormal fetal trace and a labour epidural: before insertion discuss with the obstetrician; after a bolus check maternal vitals and call the obstetrician

Part 2052 / 88

Uterine rupture: fetal heart rate abnormality is the most reliable sign

When uterine rupture is possible, take a new abnormal fetal heart trace, especially bradycardia, as the most dependable warning. Pain is unreliable.

Why

When the uterine wall tears, blood supply to the placental bed can be cut off and the fetus or placenta may be pushed out of the uterus. Oxygen delivery to the fetus then falls quickly, so the fetal heart trace changes early and in most cases. Maternal signs are less consistent. Breakthrough pain appears in only a minority of women and is not explained by the epidural. Bleeding, hypotension, tachycardia and shock come with haemorrhage. Abnormal presentation, such as breech, is a risk factor.

The trap

Breakthrough pain as rupture sign. Review books describe rupture as severe pain with fetal distress, but pain is not the classic sign. Breakthrough pain occurs in only a minority, and its absence is not due to the epidural. A pain-free woman can still have a rupture; the fetal trace detects it more reliably.

Evidence

Miller lists fetal bradycardia, cessation of contractions, pain, bleeding and loss of station as signs; a non-reassuring fetal heart trace is the most reliable and sensitive. Breakthrough pain is uncommon and unrelated to the epidural. Faust adds hypotension, tachycardia, shock. Malposition is a risk factor.

Sources: Miller 10eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Trial of labour after caesarean with an epidural running. Most dependable warning of rupture?

New abnormal fetal trace, especially bradycardia.

Does the absence of pain reassure you against uterine rupture?

No; pain is unreliable. Trust the fetal trace.

Common misconception That severe abdominal pain is the key sign

Report a problem with entry 52: Uterine rupture: fetal heart rate abnormality is the most reliable sign

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Part 2 · RecognitionThe hypertensive disorders

  1. 053Severe preeclampsia: blood pressure 160/110 or more with proteinuria and headache or epigastric pain
  2. 054HELLP syndrome: haemolysis, raised liver enzymes, low platelets, and the potassium and magnesium levels on treatment
  3. 055Severe preeclampsia haemodynamics: raised systemic vascular resistance
  4. 056Pre-eclampsia is definitively treated by delivery
Part 2053 / 88

Severe preeclampsia: blood pressure 160/110 or more with proteinuria and headache or epigastric pain

After 20 weeks, hypertension of at least 160 systolic or 110 diastolic, or with headache or epigastric pain, is pre-eclampsia with severe features.

Why

Pre-eclampsia means hypertension plus evidence that organs are being damaged, and proteinuria is only one sign of that damage. Severity depends on which organs are affected, not on how much protein is in the urine. Proteinuria is not on the severe-feature list, and new hypertension with any severe feature counts as pre-eclampsia even when the urine has no protein. Severe-range pressure qualifies on its own. The two readings should ideally be 4 hours apart, but treatment does not have to wait for the second reading.

The trap

Pregnancy-induced hypertension despite severe features. Pregnancy-induced hypertension is tempting because the pressure rose for the first time after 20 weeks. That label only applies when there is no proteinuria and no sign of organ damage. Headache, epigastric pain and severe-range pressure are signs of organ damage, so the diagnosis becomes pre-eclampsia with severe features.

Evidence

Severe features: pressure ≥160 systolic or ≥110 diastolic on two readings 4 hours apart; platelets below 100,000 per microlitre; liver enzymes over twice normal or severe right upper quadrant or epigastric pain; creatinine above 1.1 mg/dL or doubled; pulmonary oedema; new headache or visual disturbance.

Sources: Barash 9eFaustStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
At 34 weeks, new blood pressure 166/112 mmHg with proteinuria. Must antihypertensive treatment wait for a repeat reading 4 hours later?

No; treat now. The confirming reading need not delay treatment.

New hypertension at 30 weeks with epigastric pain and headache, no proteinuria. Is this pregnancy-induced hypertension?

No; pre-eclampsia with severe features, proteinuria not required.

Common misconception That without proteinuria it is gestational hypertension

Report a problem with entry 53: Severe preeclampsia: blood pressure 160/110 or more with proteinuria and headache or epigastric pain

Part 2054 / 88

HELLP syndrome: haemolysis, raised liver enzymes, low platelets, and the potassium and magnesium levels on treatment

Haemolysis, raised transaminases and thrombocytopenia in pre-eclampsia is HELLP; a magnesium level within the treatment target on infusion is intended, not an added diagnosis.

Why

HELLP is a severe form of pre-eclampsia defined by the triad; platelet count grades it, and about 100,000/mm3 marks the mild–moderate border. Magnesium sulfate is deliberately titrated above the normal 1.5–2 mEq/L. Being divalent, its millimolar value doubles in milliequivalents, so a typical infusion reading lands in target. Most texts give 4–8 mEq/L; one table narrows this to 4.0–6.0 and starts ECG changes at 5.0, so the bands overlap: an overlap value remains therapeutic, with the ECG watched. No source makes mild hyperkalaemia a separate diagnosis.

The trap

Magnesium elevation as separate criterion. Listing every value is tempting because all look abnormal against non-pregnant norms. It is wrong because magnesium is the intended effect of the infusion and lies within the treatment band once converted to milliequivalents. No source treats slightly raised potassium as a separate diagnosis.

Evidence

HELLP is described as a severe pre-eclampsia variant marked by haemolysis, raised liver enzymes and thrombocytopenia, graded mild to severe by platelet count. Normal magnesium is 1.5–2 mEq/L; treatment aims for 4–8, with one table giving 4.0–6.0 and ECG changes from 5.0.

Sources: Barash 9eMayo reviewFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Pre-eclampsia with haemolysis, raised transaminases and platelets of 70,000. Diagnosis?

HELLP syndrome.

On a magnesium sulfate infusion for pre-eclampsia, plasma magnesium is 4.5 mEq/L. Is hypermagnesaemia a separate diagnosis?

No; it lies within the intended therapeutic range.

Common misconception That the therapeutic magnesium level is a separate diagnosis

Report a problem with entry 54: HELLP syndrome: haemolysis, raised liver enzymes, low platelets, and the potassium and magnesium levels on treatment

Part 2055 / 88

Severe preeclampsia haemodynamics: raised systemic vascular resistance

In severe preeclampsia, the dependable haemodynamic finding is raised systemic vascular resistance. Cardiac output varies, and the intravascular volume is contracted, not expanded.

Why

Trophoblast invasion is shallow, so the spiral arteries stay narrow and resist flow. The poorly perfused placenta then releases vasoactive factors that damage the mother's endothelium throughout the body. The result is widespread vasoconstriction and greater sensitivity to catecholamines. Low plasma protein and haemoconcentration mean the circulation is depleted, so the high blood pressure comes from resistance rather than from extra volume. The heart is often hyperdynamic but not in every woman, and some women have myocardial dysfunction.

The trap

Raised cardiac index as signature. Many preeclamptic women do have a hyperdynamic heart, so a raised cardiac index seems plausible. But it is not consistent: some women have myocardial dysfunction. The finding that the sources list reliably, and that explains the hypertension, is raised vascular resistance.

Evidence

One textbook says most preeclamptic women, though not all, have a hyperdynamic heart and moderately raised SVR. Another lists raised SVR alongside hypovolaemia, haemoconcentration and myocardial dysfunction. The first textbook traces this to placental factors that injure the maternal endothelium.

Sources: Stoelting 8eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Most dependable haemodynamic change in severe pre-eclampsia?

Raised systemic vascular resistance.

Is intravascular volume expanded in severe pre-eclampsia, and is cardiac index reliably high?

Volume is contracted; cardiac output varies.

Common misconception That cardiac index is consistently raised

Report a problem with entry 55: Severe preeclampsia haemodynamics: raised systemic vascular resistance

Part 2056 / 88

Pre-eclampsia is definitively treated by delivery

Delivering the fetus and placenta is the only cure for pre-eclampsia. At term, deliver; antihypertensives only buy time for a preterm fetus.

Why

The cure is delivery of the fetus and placenta, so the disease is tied to the pregnancy itself. Antihypertensives and vasodilators lower the blood pressure but do not reverse the disorder. What needs deciding is when to deliver, not whether. Two things set the timing: how severe the mother's disease is and how mature the fetus is. Without severe features, it is acceptable to wait until term. A preterm fetus justifies symptomatic control under close monitoring. Once the pregnancy reaches term, waiting gains nothing.

The trap

Seizure onset predicted from presentation. Hypertension with oedema in an older mother who had little antenatal care sounds alarming, so predicting seizures feels safe. But nothing in the picture shows that seizures are about to happen. The only statement that is always true is that delivery cures the disease.

Evidence

Every source agrees that delivery is the only curative treatment. Expectant management is allowed until 37 weeks when there are no severe features. For a preterm fetus, symptomatic antihypertensive treatment with close obstetric monitoring is used until delivery.

Sources: Barash 9eFaustStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
What is the only cure for pre-eclampsia?

Delivery of the fetus and placenta.

Pre-eclampsia at 30 weeks. What do antihypertensives achieve?

They buy time for the preterm fetus; they do not cure.

Report a problem with entry 56: Pre-eclampsia is definitively treated by delivery

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Part 2 · RecognitionPlacenta accreta spectrum

  1. 057Placenta accreta spectrum: accreta adheres to the myometrium, increta invades it, percreta passes through the serosa
  2. 058Previa with prior caesareans: accreta risk climbs from about 3% with none to about 61% with three
Part 2057 / 88

Placenta accreta spectrum: accreta adheres to the myometrium, increta invades it, percreta passes through the serosa

Accreta adheres to the myometrium without invading it; increta invades the myometrium; percreta penetrates the full wall to the serosa or beyond.

Why

Normally the decidua provides a plane for placental separation. When it is absent, villi attach to or grow into the uterine wall, named by depth. Accreta: villi only attach. Increta: villi invade the myometrium but remain within it. Percreta: villi penetrate the full thickness of the muscle, can reach the serosa, and may invade organs such as the bladder or bowel. Invasion through the full myometrial thickness is therefore percreta.

The trap

Increta as complete myometrial invasion. "Increta" sounds like "into the muscle", so invasion of the whole muscle seems to fit it. But increta stays inside the myometrium. Villi that cross its full thickness have reached the serosa, and that is percreta.

Evidence

Accreta, the most common type, adheres to the muscle without invading it, with no decidual separation plane. Increta invades the myometrium. Percreta penetrates the uterine wall to the serosa and beyond, and may implant on the bladder, bowel or ovaries.

Sources: FaustMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Villi stick to the myometrium without invading it. Name?

Placenta accreta.

Placental tissue has grown right through the uterine muscle and reached the serosa. Increta or something else?

Percreta; increta stays inside the myometrium.

Common misconception That full-thickness invasion is increta

Report a problem with entry 57: Placenta accreta spectrum: accreta adheres to the myometrium, increta invades it, percreta passes through the serosa

Part 2058 / 88

Previa with prior caesareans: accreta risk climbs from about 3% with none to about 61% with three

With placenta praevia, count previous caesarean scars, not parity: accreta risk is about 3%, 11%, 40% and 61% for zero, one, two and three scars.

Why

Praevia itself is the main driver of accreta. The number of earlier hysterotomies is the second driver, and the risk rises steeply with each extra uterine scar. Barash and Miller give single figures that climb step by step with each caesarean. The Mayo review gives ranges instead: about 10% to 25% for one scar, and 40% to over 60% for two or more. Those ranges contain the single figures, so the sources agree. When a question wants one number, use the single figure for the exact number of scars.

The trap

Parity counted instead of caesarean scars. 40% is the risk with two previous caesareans. A woman who is para 2 has delivered twice, but if only one delivery was a caesarean she has one uterine scar. Counting deliveries instead of hysterotomies overshoots. Her risk is about 11%.

Evidence

When praevia is known, accreta risk rises from 3% with no previous caesarean to 61% with three. Miller gives the steps in between: 11% with one and 40% with two. The Mayo review quotes ranges that contain these figures.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Placenta praevia with three previous caesareans. Accreta risk?

About 61%.

Para 2 with praevia: one vaginal birth, one caesarean. Accreta risk?

About 11%; count scars, not deliveries.

Common misconception That parity sets the risk

Report a problem with entry 58: Previa with prior caesareans: accreta risk climbs from about 3% with none to about 61% with three

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Part 2 · RecognitionNerve injury after delivery

  1. 059Foot drop after a prolonged second stage: a lumbosacral trunk obstetric palsy, not the epidural
  2. 060Common peroneal palsy: toe extension and foot dorsiflexion weakness
  3. 061Obturator palsy: weak hip adduction and medial thigh numbness
  4. 062Difficulty climbing stairs after a long labour: femoral neuropathy (weak knee extension), not the lumbosacral trunk foot-drop pattern
Part 2059 / 88

Foot drop after a prolonged second stage: a lumbosacral trunk obstetric palsy, not the epidural

Foot drop with L5 numbness after a prolonged second stage means lumbosacral trunk compression by the fetal head: an obstetric palsy, not the epidural.

Why

The lumbosacral trunk joins L4 and L5 fibres and descends into the pelvis, where a fetal head held low through a long second stage can compress it; losing L5 weakens dorsiflexion, numbs the anterolateral leg and drops the foot. Miller ties postpartum lumbosacral injury to nulliparity and prolonged pushing, not epidural use; Barash calls such obstetric palsies commoner than anaesthetic ones. If the trunk is not offered, choose cephalopelvic disproportion, its obstetric cause; femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous neuropathies spare dorsiflexion, and residual block is bilateral and brief.

The trap

Lithotomy nerve injury from labour. Common peroneal palsy produces exactly this foot drop, so it looks right. But it is the lithotomy injury, the nerve squeezed against the fibular head by leg supports; after a long second stage without that, the lesion sits higher, in the lumbosacral trunk within the pelvis.

Evidence

Miller links postpartum lumbosacral injury to first births and a long second stage, not to epidural analgesia, with femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous neuropathies commonest. Barash says obstetric palsies outnumber anaesthetic nerve injuries, partly via fetal-head compression; the lumbosacral trunk unites L4 and L5.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Foot drop and L5 numbness after a 3-hour second stage with an epidural. Cause?

Fetal head compressing the lumbosacral trunk; an obstetric palsy.

No leg supports were used. Is common peroneal palsy the cause of this postpartum foot drop?

Unlikely; the lesion sits higher, in the lumbosacral trunk.

Common misconception That it is common peroneal palsy

Report a problem with entry 59: Foot drop after a prolonged second stage: a lumbosacral trunk obstetric palsy, not the epidural

Part 2060 / 88

Common peroneal palsy: toe extension and foot dorsiflexion weakness

Common peroneal nerve injury causes foot drop: weak ankle dorsiflexion, weak toe extension and loss of eversion; tibial-mediated plantar flexion is spared.

Why

The sciatic nerve divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve plantar flexes and inverts the foot. The common peroneal nerve dorsiflexes and everts it, and it also extends the toes. It winds superficially round the fibular head, so a leg brace, stirrup or frame can compress it against bone. That can happen in lithotomy or labour positioning. Losing this nerve therefore removes the muscles that lift the foot and toes. The tibial muscles are untouched, so the foot hangs down and cannot be turned outward.

The trap

Tibial nerve weakness in peroneal palsy. This is tempting because the tibial and common peroneal nerves are sister branches of the sciatic nerve and are easily swapped. Plantar flexion belongs to the tibial nerve. A peroneal lesion leaves it intact and does the opposite: the foot cannot be lifted.

Evidence

The common peroneal nerve is usually damaged where it is pressed against the fibular head by an external support. The injury causes foot drop, with impaired ankle dorsiflexion and loss of eversion and toe extension. The tibial nerve separately mediates plantar flexion and inversion.

Sources: Mayo reviewMiller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
After hours in stirrups she cannot lift the foot, straighten the toes or turn the sole outward. Nerve?

Common peroneal, pressed against the fibular head.

In common peroneal injury, which ankle movement is spared?

Plantar flexion, via the tibial nerve.

Common misconception That plantar flexion is weak

Report a problem with entry 60: Common peroneal palsy: toe extension and foot dorsiflexion weakness

Part 2061 / 88

Obturator palsy: weak hip adduction and medial thigh numbness

After a difficult delivery, weak hip adduction plus inner thigh numbness points to the obturator nerve, whatever the labour analgesia.

Why

The obturator nerve supplies the adductors (longus, brevis, gracilis, pectineus) and the skin of the medial thigh. A lesion causes weak adduction and a strip of inner-thigh numbness, sparing knee extension and the foot. The nerve runs inside the pelvis and exits through the obturator foramen, where forceps delivery or pelvic retraction can compress it. Abducting the hip beyond 30 degrees, or flexing the thigh hard to the groin, stretches it. The epidural does not injure the nerve; delivery and positioning do.

The trap

Lumbosacral compression causing adductor weakness. In prolonged labour, the fetal head can compress the lumbosacral trunk against the pelvic brim, the classic obstetric palsy, causing foot drop and lower leg and foot numbness. It does not cause isolated adductor weakness with numbness confined to the medial thigh.

Evidence

Difficult forceps delivery or strong thigh flexion can damage the obturator nerve, causing loss of adduction and reduced medial thigh sensation. The nerve supplies the adductors and medial thigh skin. Abduction beyond 30 degrees stretches it.

Sources: Mayo reviewBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
After a forceps delivery, weak hip adduction and numbness of the inner thigh. Which nerve?

Obturator nerve.

Does lumbosacral trunk compression explain isolated adductor weakness with medial thigh numbness?

No; that causes foot drop. Isolated adductor weakness is obturator.

Common misconception That the lumbosacral trunk explains adductor weakness

Report a problem with entry 61: Obturator palsy: weak hip adduction and medial thigh numbness

Part 2062 / 88

Difficulty climbing stairs after a long labour: femoral neuropathy (weak knee extension), not the lumbosacral trunk foot-drop pattern

If a woman cannot climb stairs after a long labour, think femoral neuropathy: the quadriceps is weak, so the knee will not straighten under load.

Why

Going up stairs means straightening the knee against body weight, which is the quadriceps' job, and the femoral nerve supplies it. The nerve also carries sensation from the front of the thigh and the inner leg. It is stretched or pinched when the hips stay sharply flexed during long pushing in a semi-sitting position. Sustained compression during a prolonged second stage causes the palsy, not the epidural. Obturator injury looks different: the thigh cannot adduct and numbness is on the inner thigh.

The trap

Trunk compression from stair difficulty. The fetal head stuck in the pelvis for hours points toward a pelvic lesion, and fetal head compression is a recognised cause of obstetric palsy. But the complaint to match is failed knee extension, a quadriceps deficit. The sources link that to the femoral nerve, not to a trunk lesion.

Evidence

Femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous neuropathies are the commonest postpartum nerve injuries, linked to nulliparity and prolonged second stage, not epidural use. Femoral injury weakens knee extension and numbs the anterior thigh; obturator injury causes adduction weakness and medial thigh numbness.

Sources: Mayo reviewMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
After a long labour she cannot climb stairs because the knee buckles. Which nerve?

Femoral nerve; weak quadriceps.

Fetal head held low for hours, now weak knee extension. Is this a lumbosacral trunk lesion?

No; failed knee extension points to femoral neuropathy.

Common misconception That the lumbosacral trunk is responsible

Report a problem with entry 62: Difficulty climbing stairs after a long labour: femoral neuropathy (weak knee extension), not the lumbosacral trunk foot-drop pattern

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Part 3 · SituationsMagnesium and eclampsia

  1. 063Eclamptic seizure on a magnesium infusion: the first drug
  2. 064Magnesium toxicity: stop the infusion and give calcium
  3. 065What a magnesium infusion does on examination
  4. 066Magnesium sulfate and neuromuscular blockers
Part 3063 / 88

Eclamptic seizure on a magnesium infusion: the first drug

Seizure despite magnesium infusion: give a further 1–2 g magnesium bolus first, then check plasma level. Do not give benzodiazepine, phenytoin or immediate delivery.

Why

In eclampsia, magnesium is more effective and safer than benzodiazepines or phenytoin, so a breakthrough fit indicates too little magnesium, not the wrong drug. The infusion should hold plasma levels at 4 to 8 mEq/L. A fit on the infusion suggests the level has fallen short: give an extra bolus, then measure the level to confirm the range. If no bolus is offered, raising the infusion rate is the nearest correct move. A seizure alone does not force delivery if mother and fetus are stable.

The trap

Benzodiazepine as seizure first-line drug. Midazolam is the reflex first-line drug for a generalised seizure, and a fit on magnesium looks like magnesium has failed. In eclampsia, though, magnesium is more effective and safer than benzodiazepines. The breakthrough fit is treated with more magnesium, so a benzodiazepine is not the first drug.

Evidence

Magnesium is the anticonvulsant of choice in eclampsia, preferred to benzodiazepines and phenytoin. For a seizure during prophylactic infusion, give a 1–2 g bolus, then check plasma level (target 4–8 mEq/L). Delivery need not be immediate if mother and fetus are stable.

Sources: Stoelting 8eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A fit occurs during a magnesium infusion for pre-eclampsia. First drug?

Further 1–2 g magnesium bolus, then check plasma level.

Should midazolam be first choice for a fit on a magnesium infusion?

No; more magnesium is safer and more effective.

Common misconception That a benzodiazepine is first-line

Report a problem with entry 63: Eclamptic seizure on a magnesium infusion: the first drug

Part 3064 / 88

Magnesium toxicity: stop the infusion and give calcium

If magnesium toxicity is suspected, stop the infusion first, then give intravenous calcium slowly. Use diuresis or dialysis to remove the excess magnesium.

Why

The infusion is still adding magnesium, so turning it off comes first. Calcium does not remove magnesium. It only blocks its effects for a short time. When signs are life-threatening, such as conduction block or arrhythmia, calcium buys time while the magnesium is cleared. Milder excess is cleared through the kidneys with saline and loop diuretics. Dialysis may be needed if toxicity is severe. Inject calcium slowly, because giving it quickly can remove magnesium's protection against eclamptic seizures.

The trap

Fast calcium push or diuretics prioritised. The tempting errors are a fast calcium push, or diuretics first. Diuretics suit milder excess but work too slowly for an arrhythmia, so stopping the infusion and giving calcium must come first. A fast push can remove the anticonvulsant protection, so give calcium slowly.

Evidence

Stop any magnesium infusion and give 1 g calcium gluconate (10 mL of 10%) slowly over at least 2 minutes when toxicity is suspected. Calcium only temporarily relieves life-threatening signs. Saline with loop diuretics treats milder excess; dialysis may be needed.

Sources: Barash 9eMayo reviewStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
On magnesium she develops heart block and a slow rate. First steps?

Stop the infusion, then give IV calcium slowly.

Why not push the calcium fast, and what clears the excess magnesium?

Fast push loses seizure protection; diuresis or dialysis removes magnesium.

Common misconception That calcium should be given as a rapid push

Report a problem with entry 64: Magnesium toxicity: stop the infusion and give calcium

Part 3065 / 88

What a magnesium infusion does on examination

Magnesium infusion lowers blood pressure and dampens reflexes and breathing: expect hypotension, hyporeflexia and urinary retention, never hyperreflexia or diuresis.

Why

Magnesium dilates blood vessels, so blood pressure falls. It also makes existing hypotension worse, a risk named specifically when it is given to protect the preterm fetal brain. It depresses the nervous system and neuromuscular transmission, so tendon reflexes weaken and then disappear. At higher levels breathing is depressed, not stimulated. It causes urinary retention and ileus, not a diuresis. Brisk reflexes are a sign of the underlying pre-eclampsia, which the drug is given to suppress, not a sign of the drug.

The trap

Magnesium causing brisk reflex preservation. Brisk reflexes are a classic pre-eclampsia sign and sit next to magnesium in obstetric tables, so the option feels familiar. Magnesium does the opposite: it depresses nerve and muscle function, so reflexes fade. Brisk reflexes during an infusion point to the disease, not the drug.

Evidence

Barash warns that magnesium given for fetal neuroprotection worsens hypotension and strengthens muscle relaxants. Stoelting links hypotension to vasodilation and lists loss of tendon reflexes as levels rise. Barash adds urinary retention, hyporeflexia and respiratory depression at higher levels.

Sources: Barash 9eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Expected examination findings on a magnesium infusion?

Hypotension, hyporeflexia and urinary retention.

Brisk reflexes in a woman on magnesium: is that a drug effect?

No; magnesium dampens reflexes. Brisk reflexes reflect the disease.

Common misconception That magnesium causes hyperreflexia

Report a problem with entry 65: What a magnesium infusion does on examination

Part 3066 / 88

Magnesium sulfate and neuromuscular blockers

In a pre-eclamptic patient on magnesium, expect more sensitivity to all muscle relaxants: give smaller non-depolarising doses and monitor neuromuscular function before extubation.

Why

Magnesium acts at the myoneural junction and strengthens the block that relaxants produce, so each dose has a larger and longer effect. After a 40 mg/kg loading dose, the vecuronium dose needed for half-maximal effect fell by 25%. Onset was almost twice as fast and recovery took about twice as long. Suxamethonium is potentiated as well as non-depolarising agents. Magnesium can also make hypotension worse, so haemodynamic vigilance goes alongside careful dosing of relaxants.

The trap

Magnesium reducing neuromuscular block duration. This option names the right drug class and the right interaction, which is why it catches people. But it gets the direction backwards. Magnesium makes the junction more sensitive, so smaller doses are needed and the block lasts longer. Assuming reduced sensitivity leads to overdosing and residual paralysis.

Evidence

Magnesium given for pre-eclampsia potentiates non-depolarising block, with a lower effective dose, faster onset and longer recovery. It also potentiates depolarising relaxants and prolongs their effect at the myoneural junction. The texts also warn about extubation after magnesium.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A pre-eclamptic woman on magnesium needs general anaesthesia. How do you dose rocuronium and plan extubation?

Smaller doses; check neuromuscular function before extubation.

Does magnesium lower sensitivity to non-depolarising relaxants?

No; it raises sensitivity and prolongs the block.

Common misconception That magnesium decreases sensitivity to relaxants

Report a problem with entry 66: Magnesium sulfate and neuromuscular blockers

Back to card 14Back to contents

Part 3 · SituationsHypotension in the parturient

  1. 067Spinal hypotension at caesarean: phenylephrine first line (ephedrine if the heart rate is slow)
  2. 068Why spinal anaesthesia drops blood pressure so far in pregnancy: low systemic vascular resistance
  3. 069Supine hypotension syndrome: aortocaval compression relieved by left uterine displacement
  4. 070Emergency caesarean under TIVA with BIS 35, low blood pressure and a slow heart rate
  5. 071Mitral stenosis hypotension: phenylephrine, because tachycardia shortens diastolic filling
Part 3067 / 88

Spinal hypotension at caesarean: phenylephrine first line (ephedrine if the heart rate is slow)

For spinal hypotension at caesarean, give phenylephrine unless the mother is bradycardic; then choose ephedrine. Either drug is acceptable, but phenylephrine better protects fetal acid–base.

Why

Both drugs restore maternal blood pressure about equally well, so the choice depends on the baby. Ephedrine crosses the placenta much more (fetal-to-maternal ratio 0.7 against 0.2), which gives beta stimulation in the fetus and more fetal acidosis. The obstetric guideline keeps both drugs as current options. When the mother is not bradycardic, it steers towards phenylephrine, so a mother with a normal or fast heart rate falls on that side. When her heart rate is slow, ephedrine becomes the better choice.

The trap

Ephedrine without bradycardia assessment chosen. Ephedrine is familiar and guideline-approved, so it feels like the safe classic answer. Its advantage only applies when the mother is bradycardic. With a normal or fast heart rate, it adds nothing over phenylephrine and crosses the placenta more, leaving the fetus more acidotic.

Evidence

The obstetric anaesthesia guideline permits either drug for neuraxial hypotension but advises phenylephrine without maternal bradycardia, given better fetal acid–base status. A major text finds them equally effective, with less fetal acidosis from phenylephrine. A review reserves ephedrine for bradycardic hypotension.

Sources: Mayo reviewOutside our books: Practice Guidelines for Obstetric Anesthesia: An Updated Report by the American Society of Anesthesiologists Task Force on Obstetric Anesthesia and the Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology (2016)Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Spinal hypotension at caesarean with a heart rate of 95. Vasopressor?

Phenylephrine.

Spinal hypotension at caesarean with a heart rate of 48. Vasopressor?

Ephedrine.

Report a problem with entry 67: Spinal hypotension at caesarean: phenylephrine first line (ephedrine if the heart rate is slow)

Part 3068 / 88

Why spinal anaesthesia drops blood pressure so far in pregnancy: low systemic vascular resistance

Spinal hypotension is severe in parturients because pregnancy already lowers systemic vascular resistance, and the block removes the sympathetic tone maintaining pressure.

Why

Progesterone raises nitric oxide and prostacyclin output, and vessels respond less to noradrenaline and angiotensin. The pregnant woman is therefore vasodilated from early gestation, with resistance falling by 20% to 50% from about 8 weeks. Her blood pressure depends on reflex sympathetic vasoconstriction, especially when the gravid uterus compresses the vena cava in the supine position. A spinal block abolishes that sympathetic drive. Resistance then falls further from an already low baseline, and the compensation against caval compression is lost, so pressure drops more than in a non-pregnant patient.

The trap

Cardiac output increase causing pressure fall. A raised cardiac output is a real and well-known change in pregnancy, so it feels like the right answer. But a higher output supports blood pressure rather than lowering it. The fall after a spinal comes from reduced vascular resistance, not from the heart.

Evidence

Pregnancy hormones cause peripheral vasodilation and lower systemic resistance from early gestation. Pregnancy is a named risk factor for hypotension after a spinal. Neuraxial block removes the sympathetic vasoconstriction that normally offsets supine caval compression, which makes the hypotension worse.

Sources: Barash 9eStoelting 8eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Why does spinal anaesthesia drop blood pressure further in pregnancy?

Low baseline vascular resistance plus lost sympathetic tone.

Does the raised cardiac output of pregnancy explain the steep post-spinal fall in pressure?

No; output supports pressure. Low resistance explains it.

Common misconception That increased cardiac output causes it

Report a problem with entry 68: Why spinal anaesthesia drops blood pressure so far in pregnancy: low systemic vascular resistance

Part 3069 / 88

Supine hypotension syndrome: aortocaval compression relieved by left uterine displacement

A term parturient hypotensive on lying flat has supine hypotension syndrome until proven otherwise; relieve it with left uterine displacement by tilt or hip wedge.

Why

Lying supine lets the heavy late-pregnancy uterus fall back onto the inferior vena cava, so venous return, preload and cardiac output fall; hypotension, bradycardia and reduced uterine flow with fetal distress can follow. Neuraxial block adds its own fall in pressure, so flat positioning is avoided during spinals. The term 'aortocaval' reflects an older belief, still used by Barash and Miller, that the aorta is squeezed too; Stoelting notes newer evidence spares the aorta. Either way, shifting the uterus leftward restores flow.

The trap

Spinal anaesthesia blamed for caval compression. Spinal-induced hypotension is tempting because it is the commonest complication after neuraxial block. But here pressure fell the instant she lay flat and recovered with left tilt; relief by displacing the uterus identifies caval compression as the cause, with the block merely aggravating it.

Evidence

At term a minority of women develop hypotension and bradycardia within minutes of lying supine, because the enlarged uterus compresses the vena cava and cuts venous return. Left tilt lessens the fall and protects uterine and fetal flow. Newer work suggests the aorta is spared.

Sources: Mayo reviewMiller 10eStoelting 8e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
At 39 weeks she becomes hypotensive within minutes of lying flat. Diagnosis and fix?

Supine hypotension syndrome; left uterine displacement by tilt or wedge.

After a spinal, pressure drops when she lies flat and recovers with left tilt. Main cause?

Caval compression; the block only aggravates it.

Common misconception That spinal sympathetic block alone is the cause

Report a problem with entry 69: Supine hypotension syndrome: aortocaval compression relieved by left uterine displacement

Part 3070 / 88

Emergency caesarean under TIVA with BIS 35, low blood pressure and a slow heart rate

Under propofol TIVA, a BIS below 40 means excess hypnotic; reduce the propofol infusion toward 40–60 before treating modest hypotension or bradycardia with drugs.

Why

BIS is a processed EEG index with a general anaesthesia target of 40 to 60, so a reading this low is deeper than needed. In propofol–remifentanil anaesthesia the value mainly reflects propofol, as the monitor barely registers opioids; a low reading therefore means excess propofol. First remove the surplus hypnotic. A drug that only speeds the heart leaves the overdose in place. In a term patient, also check for left uterine displacement, as supine caval compression alone can cause hypotension and bradycardia.

The trap

Anticholinergic chosen for assumed vagal effect. A heart rate under 60 with soft pressure makes an anticholinergic look like the obvious answer. But the rate is only slightly slow and nothing points to a vagal trigger. The BIS shows the patient is too deep, and glycopyrrolate does nothing to correct that cause.

Evidence

Barash sets the BIS target for general anaesthesia at 40 to 60. It notes that processed EEG hardly responds to opioids, so under TIVA the reading mainly reflects propofol. The Mayo review notes that supine term patients can develop hypotension with bradycardia from aortocaval compression.

Sources: Barash 9eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Caesarean under propofol-remifentanil TIVA: BIS 32, pressure mildly low, heart rate 56. First step?

Reduce propofol until BIS is 40-60.

Same patient: is glycopyrrolate the right first move?

Not first; she is too deep, so cut the propofol and check uterine displacement.

Common misconception That an anticholinergic treats the cause

Report a problem with entry 70: Emergency caesarean under TIVA with BIS 35, low blood pressure and a slow heart rate

Part 3071 / 88

Mitral stenosis hypotension: phenylephrine, because tachycardia shortens diastolic filling

For hypotension in mitral stenosis, including after a labour epidural, give a pure alpha agonist such as phenylephrine; avoid drugs that raise heart rate.

Why

Blood crosses a narrowed mitral orifice only during diastole. A faster heart rate shortens filling time, raising left atrial and pulmonary pressures and lowering output. Tachycardia is more harmful than losing atrial contraction. Phenylephrine restores systemic pressure with little effect on pulmonary artery pressure, and obstetric guidance already prefers it when the mother is not bradycardic. Barash's table grades an intermediate valve area as moderate; Miller and the valve guideline call it severe, with a high gradient and pulmonary pressure. The drug choice is the same either way.

The trap

Ephedrine despite heart rate increase risk. Ephedrine is the usual obstetric pressor and would be right if the mother were bradycardic. But its beta-adrenergic action speeds the heart. In mitral stenosis the shorter diastole raises left atrial pressure and risks pulmonary oedema, so it makes the underlying problem worse.

Evidence

Stoelting favours pure alpha vasoconstrictors such as phenylephrine for hypotension in mitral stenosis, sparing pulmonary pressure. Miller warns tachycardia shortens diastolic filling and is the main cause of decline. Obstetric guidelines prefer phenylephrine unless the mother is bradycardic, as fetal acid–base is better.

Sources: Stoelting 8eMiller 10eOutside our books: Practice Guidelines for Obstetric Anesthesia: An Updated Report by the American Society of Anesthesiologists Task Force on Obstetric Anesthesia and the Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology (2016)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Mitral stenosis, hypotensive after a labour epidural, heart rate 100. Vasopressor?

Phenylephrine, a pure alpha agonist.

Why avoid ephedrine in mitral stenosis?

Tachycardia shortens diastolic filling and raises left atrial pressure.

Common misconception That ephedrine is the safe obstetric pressor here

Report a problem with entry 71: Mitral stenosis hypotension: phenylephrine, because tachycardia shortens diastolic filling

Back to card 15Back to contents

Part 3 · SituationsThe airway fails at caesarean

  1. 072First failed laryngoscopy at caesarean without hypoxaemia: one optimised second attempt before declaring failed intubation
  2. 073Failed intubation at caesarean with desaturation: call for help, oxygenate through a second-generation supraglottic airway, then wake or proceed
Part 3072 / 88

First failed laryngoscopy at caesarean without hypoxaemia: one optimised second attempt before declaring failed intubation

After one failed laryngoscopy at caesarean with oxygenation intact, get the most experienced anaesthetist, change position, cricoid force or equipment, then attempt once more.

Why

A poor first view often has a correctable cause: cricoid force can distort the larynx, and head position or external laryngeal manipulation can improve the view. The obstetric difficult airway guideline therefore expects a second, better-equipped attempt by the senior person. The newer adult difficult airway guideline adds exit branches: stop at once and oxygenate by facemask if she desaturates, and declare failure even after one look if nothing can be changed. A second attempt is justified only if there is an improvement to make and she is well oxygenated.

The trap

Rescue airway device before optimisation. A laryngeal mask with cricoid pressure is the standard rescue after failed intubation, but failure has not been declared: she is oxygenating and the poor view is correctable. Use the rescue device only if the optimised second attempt fails.

Evidence

The obstetric guideline wants a senior second attempt with alternative equipment, after improving a poor view by easing cricoid force, laryngeal manipulation and repositioning. The adult guideline: hypoxaemia ends any attempt; failure may be declared after one attempt if nothing can improve.

Sources: Outside our books: Obstetric Anaesthetists' Association and Difficult Airway Society guidelines for the management of difficult and failed tracheal intubation in obstetrics (2015)Difficult Airway Society 2025

Clues · tap one to see the answer
First laryngoscopy fails at caesarean; saturation 99%. Next step?

Most experienced anaesthetist optimises position, cricoid and equipment; one more try.

Same case: insert a laryngeal mask with cricoid pressure now?

Not yet; failure is not declared. Rescue device after a failed second attempt.

Common misconception That the rescue device follows one failed look

Report a problem with entry 72: First failed laryngoscopy at caesarean without hypoxaemia: one optimised second attempt before declaring failed intubation

Part 3073 / 88

Failed intubation at caesarean with desaturation: call for help, oxygenate through a second-generation supraglottic airway, then wake or proceed

Failed intubation: oxygen, help, second-generation supraglottic airway; elective: wake; urgent: operate on it; neither device nor mask oxygenates: declare CICO, scalpel-bougie-tube front-of-neck access.

Why

A supraglottic airway restores oxygenation; a second-generation drain tube allows gastric suction. If neither device nor mask oxygenates, declare CICO, call an ear, nose and throat surgeon or intensivist, and do scalpel-bougie-tube front-of-neck access: narrow cannulas fail more, especially in obesity; surgical airways succeed more. If that fails, start arrest protocol with caesarean beyond 20 weeks. Once oxygenated by any method, front-of-neck access included, weigh waking against proceeding by maternal and fetal compromise: no urgency, wake; urgent, operate on the device, intubating through it only if required, fibrescope-guided.

The trap

Video laryngoscopy retry during desaturation. Video laryngoscopes improve the glottic view and are promoted as a rescue after failed direct laryngoscopy, so another attempt feels logical. But with saturation falling after a failed attempt, priority shifts from intubating to oxygenating; further attempts prolong hypoxia and risk airway trauma, while a supraglottic airway restores oxygenation.

Evidence

A supraglottic device is advised after failed intubation. The obstetric airway guideline adds drain-tube suction, fibrescope-only intubation through it, a wake-or-proceed review once oxygenated, specialist help once CICO is declared, surgical over cannula access, and arrest protocol with caesarean beyond 20 weeks.

Sources: Miller 10eOutside our books: Obstetric Anaesthetists' Association and Difficult Airway Society guidelines for the management of difficult and failed tracheal intubation in obstetrics (2015)Difficult Airway Society 2025

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Second intubation attempt fails at caesarean and saturation is falling. Immediate steps?

Oxygen, call for help, second-generation supraglottic airway.

Supraglottic device and facemask both fail to oxygenate. What next?

Declare CICO; scalpel-bougie-tube front-of-neck access.

Report a problem with entry 73: Failed intubation at caesarean with desaturation: call for help, oxygenate through a second-generation supraglottic airway, then wake or proceed

Back to card 16Back to contents

Part 3 · SituationsSudden collapse

  1. 074Amniotic fluid embolism diagnostic criteria: sudden cardiorespiratory collapse in labour or within 30 minutes of delivery
  2. 075Amniotic fluid embolism presentation: sudden collapse with hypotension, then coagulopathy; seizures in about half, bronchospasm rare
  3. 076Collapse minutes after amniotomy in a multipara, with or without vaginal bleeding: the cause
  4. 077A filling defect on CT pulmonary angiography after delivery is pulmonary embolism
  5. 078Suspected pulmonary embolism in pregnancy: the confirmatory test
Part 3074 / 88

Amniotic fluid embolism diagnostic criteria: sudden cardiorespiratory collapse in labour or within 30 minutes of delivery

Diagnose amniotic fluid embolism when sudden cardiorespiratory collapse with DIC starts in labour or within 30 minutes of placental delivery, and nothing else explains it.

Why

Amniotic material gets into the mother's circulation through open uteroplacental sinusoids or torn endocervical veins. That is why the event is tied to labour and the time just after the placenta separates. Pulmonary vasospasm first causes severe pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure. Left ventricular failure and pulmonary oedema follow, causing hypoxaemia and severe hypotension, and a consumptive coagulopathy develops. None of these features is unique to this condition. So the consensus definition needs all three: abrupt collapse, DIC and the timing, with no better diagnosis.

The trap

Uterine atony as embolism criterion. The mother bleeds heavily after delivery, so atony seems to fit. But in this condition the bleeding comes from DIC, not a soft uterus. Atony is an alternative cause of postpartum haemorrhage, and the criteria exclude anything with another obvious diagnosis. Atony plays no part in the definition.

Evidence

The consensus definition requires sudden cardiorespiratory compromise, documented DIC, and onset in labour or within 30 minutes of placental delivery, with no other obvious diagnosis. The classic triad is hypoxaemia, haemodynamic collapse and coagulopathy with no clear cause.

Sources: Miller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
What four criteria define amniotic fluid embolism?

Sudden cardiorespiratory compromise, DIC, peripartum timing, no other diagnosis.

Collapse with heavy bleeding 15 minutes after placental delivery, DIC confirmed. Is atony part of the diagnosis?

No; bleeding comes from DIC. Amniotic fluid embolism by exclusion.

Common misconception That uterine atony explains the bleeding

Report a problem with entry 74: Amniotic fluid embolism diagnostic criteria: sudden cardiorespiratory collapse in labour or within 30 minutes of delivery

Part 3075 / 88

Amniotic fluid embolism presentation: sudden collapse with hypotension, then coagulopathy; seizures in about half, bronchospasm rare

Suspect AFE in sudden peripartum collapse with hypotension and hypoxia, then DIC; seizures occur in about half, bronchospasm is rare, dyspnoea commonest.

Why

Amniotic fluid entering the maternal circulation first causes intense pulmonary vasospasm, severe pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular failure. This produces abrupt cardiovascular collapse and hypoxaemia, with consumptive coagulopathy later. The hypoxia is circulatory, not airway-related: high airway pressure is not seen and bronchospasm is rare, under 15%, so it is never the explanation. Seizures occur in roughly half of cases. Breathlessness is the commonest symptom; hypotension and foetal distress lead the signs. AFE can follow second-trimester termination and is a diagnosis of exclusion.

The trap

Hypotension sign chosen instead of symptom. Hypotension is the most frequent sign and heads the signs list, so it feels like the answer to any 'most common' question. But it is a sign found on examination. The commonest symptom the patient reports is breathlessness. So first decide whether a symptom or a sign is wanted.

Evidence

AFE presents dramatically: hypoxaemia, circulatory collapse, DIC, seizures in about 50%; bronchospasm and high airway pressures are not features. Dyspnoea leads symptoms, hypotension signs. Criteria: sudden cardiorespiratory compromise with DIC, in labour or within 30 minutes of placental delivery, with no other diagnosis.

Sources: Mayo reviewOutside our books: Amniotic fluid embolism (2007)Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Commonest symptom and commonest signs of amniotic fluid embolism?

Symptom dyspnoea; signs hypotension and fetal distress.

Is wheeze a typical feature of amniotic fluid embolism?

No; bronchospasm is rare, under 15%. Seizures occur in about half.

Common misconception That bronchospasm is a typical sign

Report a problem with entry 75: Amniotic fluid embolism presentation: sudden collapse with hypotension, then coagulopathy; seizures in about half, bronchospasm rare

Part 3076 / 88

Collapse minutes after amniotomy in a multipara, with or without vaginal bleeding: the cause

Sudden hypotension, collapse or unresponsiveness within minutes of amniotomy in labour, even with heavy vaginal bleeding, is amniotic fluid embolism until proven otherwise.

Why

Amniotic fluid can reach the maternal circulation only after the membranes are breached. It also needs an open venous route, either at the placental bed or through torn cervical veins, so amniotomy is the classic trigger. The circulatory insult comes in two phases. First, pulmonary vasospasm causes acute pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure. Left ventricular failure follows. More than 80% progress to cardiopulmonary arrest. Early features include confusion or unresponsiveness, hypoxia and hypotension. The accompanying disseminated intravascular coagulation explains brisk vaginal bleeding.

The trap

Abruption with sudden collapse and bleeding. Abruption tempts because vaginal bleeding with shock is its hallmark. However, it presents with a tender, hypertonic uterus and dark clotted blood, and any hypovolaemic changes follow the blood loss. Sudden collapse and altered consciousness triggered by amniotomy, with bleeding from coagulopathy, fit embolism instead.

Evidence

Embolism needs ruptured membranes plus an open uteroplacental or cervical venous route. Response is biphasic: right heart failure, then left; over 80% arrest. Early signs: altered mentation, hypotension, disseminated intravascular coagulation. Abruption shows a tender, hypertonic uterus and dark clotted blood.

Sources: Mayo reviewMiller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A multipara becomes confused and hypotensive four minutes after amniotomy. Cause?

Amniotic fluid embolism until proven otherwise.

The same collapse comes with brisk vaginal bleeding; the uterus is soft and non-tender. Abruption?

Unlikely; bleeding reflects DIC from amniotic fluid embolism.

Common misconception That bleeding with shock means abruption

Report a problem with entry 76: Collapse minutes after amniotomy in a multipara, with or without vaginal bleeding: the cause

Part 3077 / 88

A filling defect on CT pulmonary angiography after delivery is pulmonary embolism

Postpartum, a CT pulmonary angiography filling defect indicates thrombotic pulmonary embolism. Amniotic fluid embolism has no imaging sign; it is diagnosed only by exclusion.

Why

CT angiography has replaced ventilation–perfusion scanning as the first-line test for pulmonary embolism, so a clot seen in the pulmonary arteries confirms the diagnosis. Amniotic fluid embolism has no confirmatory test. It is diagnosed only from the clinical picture: abrupt cardiorespiratory collapse with DIC, starting in labour or within 30 minutes of placental delivery, with no other explanation. A clot shown on CT is that other explanation. A large clot overloads the right ventricle, which produces the strain pattern.

The trap

Amniotic embolism despite pulmonary clot. Amniotic fluid embolism is the classic sudden peripartum catastrophe, so breathlessness and tachycardia after delivery point people towards it. But it is a clinical diagnosis. It needs coagulopathy and collapse, and it is excluded once another cause is shown. A clot seen on CT is exactly that other cause.

Evidence

Chest CT has replaced ventilation–perfusion scanning as the main test for pulmonary embolism. Amniotic fluid embolism has no diagnostic test. It needs sudden cardiorespiratory compromise, DIC, onset in labour or within 30 minutes of placental delivery, and no other obvious diagnosis.

Sources: Barash 9eMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Two days postpartum, short of breath with a fast pulse; contrast CT of the chest shows clot in a pulmonary artery. Diagnosis?

Thrombotic pulmonary embolism.

Can CT imaging confirm amniotic fluid embolism?

No; it has no imaging sign and is diagnosed by exclusion.

Common misconception That a CT filling defect shows amniotic fluid embolism

Report a problem with entry 77: A filling defect on CT pulmonary angiography after delivery is pulmonary embolism

Part 3078 / 88

Suspected pulmonary embolism in pregnancy: the confirmatory test

Pregnant, suspected PE: if leg signs of DVT, duplex ultrasound first; otherwise confirm with V/Q scan or CTPA, choosing CTPA when chest X-ray is abnormal.

Why

Treatment depends on proving a clot anywhere. If leg ultrasound shows a DVT, the woman gets the same anticoagulation, so she needs no chest imaging. If her legs show no signs, her lungs must be imaged. Barash, writing about critically ill patients, says helical CT has replaced V/Q scanning as the main test. The RCOG obstetric guideline instead treats V/Q scan and CTPA as equal options in pregnancy. It prefers CTPA only when the chest film is abnormal.

The trap

Catheter angiography as first-line PE test. Catheter angiography sounds like the gold standard, and "highly suspected" tempts towards the most invasive test. However, it is now reserved for narrow situations, such as high PE likelihood with anticoagulation contraindicated and an immediate caval filter needed. It is not the guideline test in pregnancy.

Evidence

RCOG advises leg duplex ultrasound if DVT signs are present, with no further tests if clot is found. Otherwise it advises V/Q scan or CTPA, favouring CTPA if chest radiograph is abnormal. A critical-care text notes CT has generally overtaken V/Q scanning.

Sources: Outside our books: Thromboembolic Disease in Pregnancy and the Puerperium: Acute Management (2015)Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Pregnant, suspected pulmonary embolism, swollen tender calf. First test?

Compression duplex ultrasound of the leg.

At 28 weeks a clot in the lungs is possible; her legs look normal but the chest film is abnormal. Best confirming scan?

CTPA, favoured over V/Q because the film is abnormal.

Report a problem with entry 78: Suspected pulmonary embolism in pregnancy: the confirmatory test

Back to card 17Back to contents

Part 3 · SituationsAfter delivery

  1. 079Headache with fever, neck stiffness and lethargy weeks after delivery is meningitis
  2. 080Fever, headache and back pain 10 days after delivery: the next step
  3. 081Low urine output during a labour epidural: the cause
  4. 082Pruritus after intrathecal morphine: treat with nalbuphine
  5. 083Bladder dysfunction after labour with an epidural: the cause
Part 3079 / 88

Headache with fever, neck stiffness and lethargy weeks after delivery is meningitis

Postpartum headache with fever, neck stiffness and drowsiness is meningitis until proven otherwise; dural puncture headache is postural, afebrile, starting within days.

Why

Neuraxial procedures can introduce bacteria into the meninges, usually Streptococcus viridans from the clinician's nasopharynx, via contaminated drugs or needles. Meningeal inflammation causes fever, neck rigidity and falling consciousness. Meningitis may begin as a headache and be mislabelled as a leak headache. A cerebrospinal fluid leak headache worsens sitting up, eases lying flat, has no fever and, in over 90%, begins within 3 days of puncture. A fever-driven illness weeks after delivery therefore suggests infection, not a leak.

The trap

Post-dural leak assumed at weeks. Severe postpartum headache with neck pain makes people think of a dural leak, and neck pain can accompany one. However, a leak headache is positional, has no fever and usually starts within days of the puncture. Fever and lethargy weeks later point to meningeal infection instead.

Evidence

Before labelling postpartum headache a leak headache, Miller advises checking for fever and neck rigidity to exclude meningitis after dural puncture. True leak headache starts within 3 days in over 90%. Barash names streptococcus viridans contamination as the cause.

Sources: Miller 10eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Three weeks after an epidural delivery: headache, fever, neck stiffness and drowsiness. Presume what?

Meningitis until proven otherwise.

How does a dural puncture headache differ from that picture?

Postural, no fever, and starts within 3 days in over 90%.

Common misconception That this is a dural puncture headache

Report a problem with entry 79: Headache with fever, neck stiffness and lethargy weeks after delivery is meningitis

Part 3080 / 88

Fever, headache and back pain 10 days after delivery: the next step

After a neuraxial block, new fever, leukocytosis and back pain days after delivery mean an epidural abscess until proved otherwise. Get urgent spinal MRI first.

Why

An abscess compresses the spinal cord. It forms slowly, over days after a neuraxial technique, and causes signs of systemic infection such as fever and a raised white count. A haematoma appears early, within 12 hours of the procedure, without these signs. Severe or disproportionate back pain, or weakness returning after the block was wearing off, means cord compression. Only imaging can show whether there is a collection and where it is. That must be established first.

The trap

Lumbar puncture without imaging collection. Fever with headache suggests meningitis, so lumbar puncture seems natural. However, fever, leukocytosis and back pain days after delivery suggest a spinal epidural collection, possibly compressing the cord. Image it first; no needle should approach an unimaged collection.

Evidence

Both haematoma and abscess are rare. A haematoma can develop within 12 hours. An abscess takes days to form and also causes fever and leukocytosis. Disproportionate back pain or returning weakness signals cord compression, and both lesions need imaging such as MRI.

Sources: Mayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Ten days after an epidural delivery: fever, raised white count and back pain. Next step?

Urgent spinal MRI; epidural abscess until proved otherwise.

Same woman: lumbar puncture first to look for meningitis?

No; image first. No needle near an unimaged collection.

Common misconception That lumbar puncture comes first

Report a problem with entry 80: Fever, headache and back pain 10 days after delivery: the next step

Part 3081 / 88

Low urine output during a labour epidural: the cause

If urine output falls in a labouring woman with an epidural and catheter, first check the catheter drains; obstruction must be excluded first.

Why

Around stress and surgery, a brief fall in urine output is often a physiological response that recovers once blood pressure and circulating volume are restored. A sudden fall or stop in flow suggests something is blocking outflow. With a catheter in place, the most likely and most easily fixed block is the catheter itself, through kinking, malposition or blood clot. Confirm that it drains before blaming labour, fluid status or the epidural. The oliguria is described by 0.2 mL/kg/h; it names no cause.

The trap

Prerenal azotaemia from labour stress. A long second stage is tempting because it is the event just described, and stress or low volume can briefly reduce urine output. But a long labour does not stop a catheterised bladder from draining. Consider prerenal causes only after the catheter is shown to be patent.

Evidence

The textbook says that with an indwelling catheter, obstruction from malposition, blood or kinking is the first cause to exclude and correct straight away. Abrupt cessation of flow points to a postrenal block. Catheter obstruction is also listed among the alternative causes of oliguria.

Sources: Miller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Labouring with an epidural and urinary catheter, her urine flow stops abruptly. First check?

Catheter patency: kinking, malposition or clot.

Same woman after a long second stage: blame the labour for the oliguria?

Not before confirming the catheter drains.

Common misconception That the long labour explains it

Report a problem with entry 81: Low urine output during a labour epidural: the cause

Part 3082 / 88

Pruritus after intrathecal morphine: treat with nalbuphine

Treat itch from neuraxial morphine with a mixed opioid agonist–antagonist such as nalbuphine. It relieves the itch and largely keeps the pain relief.

Why

Itch after spinal morphine comes from opioid receptors activated in the central nervous system, possibly an itch centre in the medulla reached by the drug spreading upwards. Peripheral histamine release does not cause it. Opioid antagonists and partial agonists relieve it, which supports the central explanation. A partial agonist is the best choice because it acts on the central cause of the itch but, unlike a pure antagonist, does not remove the analgesia.

The trap

Antihistamine for morphine histamine release. Itch suggests histamine, and morphine is known to release it, so an antihistamine seems logical. But itch after neuraxial opioids does not come from histamine. It is centrally driven, so diphenhydramine does not treat the cause. Any benefit comes only from its sedative effect.

Evidence

Both textbooks say itch after neuraxial opioids is centrally mediated and not caused by histamine. It responds to opioid antagonists and to nalbuphine, and nalbuphine keeps analgesia intact. Antihistamines help only by sedating the patient.

Sources: FaustMiller 10e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Itch after intrathecal morphine for caesarean. Treatment that keeps the analgesia?

Nalbuphine, a mixed opioid agonist–antagonist.

Is diphenhydramine the targeted treatment for that itch?

No; the itch is central, not histamine. Antihistamines only sedate.

Common misconception That the itch is histamine-mediated

Report a problem with entry 82: Pruritus after intrathecal morphine: treat with nalbuphine

Part 3083 / 88

Bladder dysfunction after labour with an epidural: the cause

Bladder symptoms persisting after the block has worn off point to labour-related pelvic floor injury from a prolonged second stage, not the epidural or catheter.

Why

Local anaesthetic on the S2 to S4 roots weakens the detrusor, so a block can cause retention, but function returns once sensory block recedes below S2–3; a dilute infusion cannot explain symptoms persisting after delivery. Frequency and stress leakage are pelvic floor signs, and a prolonged or instrumental second stage injures the pelvic floor. Epidurals appear in retention risk lists, yet among women who all had one a long second stage still predicts dysfunction; one study linked epidurals to stress incontinence, but prospective cohorts were null. Catheters only treat retention.

The trap

Residual local anaesthetic blamed for dysfunction. Local anaesthetic on the sacral roots does weaken the detrusor, so blaming the drug sounds mechanistic. But the effect depends on the block and fades once sensation returns below S2–3. A dilute infusion that has long worn off cannot cause frequency and stress leakage, which point to pelvic floor injury.

Evidence

Sacral-root blockade weakens the detrusor, but bladder function recovers on its own once the sensory level drops below S2–3. Risk factors for retention after delivery include epidural, protracted labour, instrumental delivery and perineal tear, and forceps raise the chance of pelvic floor dysfunction.

Sources: Miller 10eOutside our books: Prolonged second stage of labor is associated with persistent urinary retention after forceps delivery: An observational study (2023)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Weeks after a long second stage with a dilute epidural, she has frequency and stress leakage. Cause?

Pelvic floor injury from the prolonged second stage.

Same woman: is the epidural local anaesthetic to blame?

No; its detrusor effect fades once the block recedes.

Common misconception That the epidural drug causes lasting bladder dysfunction

Report a problem with entry 83: Bladder dysfunction after labour with an epidural: the cause

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsPulmonary hypertension and peripartum cardiomyopathy

  1. 084Pulmonary hypertension in pregnancy: avoid hypoxaemia, acidosis and hypercarbia
  2. 085Peripartum cardiomyopathy criteria: LVEF below 45% (fractional shortening below 30%) in late pregnancy or up to 5 months after, without earlier heart disease
Part 4084 / 88

Pulmonary hypertension in pregnancy: avoid hypoxaemia, acidosis and hypercarbia

In a parturient with pulmonary hypertension, the first priority is to prevent any rise in PVR: avoid hypoxaemia, acidosis, hypercarbia, hypothermia and pain.

Why

A right ventricle facing high pulmonary pressures tolerates little extra afterload. Hypoxia, acidosis and hypercarbia each constrict pulmonary vessels, raising PVR and risking right ventricular failure. Miller notes that in healthy isolated arteries carbon dioxide acts mainly through pH, but diseased pulmonary endothelium strengthens the constriction caused by high carbon dioxide. In pulmonary hypertension, therefore, avoid both high carbon dioxide and low pH. Also support the right ventricle with carefully judged filling and by preventing systemic hypotension.

The trap

Fluid loading as initial management. The right ventricle depends on preload, so pushing fluids sounds protective. The sources ask for optimised filling, not more filling. Even so, fluids come second to stopping the triggers that raise PVR. If hypoxia or acidosis drives pulmonary pressure up, extra volume will not rescue the ventricle.

Evidence

First, prevent rising pulmonary pressure by avoiding hypoxaemia, acidosis, hypercarbia, hypothermia and pain. Next, support the right ventricle with optimised fluids and by avoiding hypotension. Raised PVR or reduced SVR can precipitate right ventricular failure.

Sources: FaustMiller 10eMayo review

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Parturient with pulmonary hypertension for caesarean. First priority?

Prevent a PVR rise: avoid hypoxaemia, acidosis, hypercarbia, hypothermia, pain.

Should generous fluid loading come first to protect her right ventricle?

No; optimise filling after removing the triggers that raise PVR.

Common misconception That more preload protects the right ventricle

Report a problem with entry 84: Pulmonary hypertension in pregnancy: avoid hypoxaemia, acidosis and hypercarbia

Part 4085 / 88

Peripartum cardiomyopathy criteria: LVEF below 45% (fractional shortening below 30%) in late pregnancy or up to 5 months after, without earlier heart disease

Diagnose peripartum cardiomyopathy from new heart failure around delivery, no prior heart disease or other cause, and LVEF under 45% or fractional shortening under 30%.

Why

The label marks a pregnancy-linked failure of LV contraction, so it needs three things: heart failure arising around delivery, no other explanation (pre-existing heart disease excludes it), and echo proof of systolic impairment. Ejection fraction under 45% and M-mode fractional shortening under 30% are paired measures of the same pump weakness; either suffices. On timing, Barash gives the narrower window, late pregnancy to the first 6 weeks postpartum, while Stoelting and the ESC describe the broader period surrounding delivery; apply the broader one so later postpartum cases are not missed.

The trap

Normal range EF as threshold. An ejection fraction near the upper end of normal seems a sensible "abnormal" cut-off, since normal values are quoted around there. However, the threshold for this diagnosis is much lower, below 45%. A value just below the normal range is not systolic dysfunction under these criteria.

Evidence

StatPearls defines LV systolic impairment as ejection fraction below 45% or M-mode fractional shortening below 30%. Stoelting requires heart failure around delivery, no other cause, and ejection fraction generally below 45%. Barash limits onset to late pregnancy through the first 6 weeks postpartum.

Sources: Outside our books: Peripartum Cardiomyopathy (2024)Stoelting 8eBarash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Two weeks postpartum: new heart failure, no prior heart disease, LVEF 35%, no other cause. Diagnosis?

Peripartum cardiomyopathy.

What echo threshold defines peripartum cardiomyopathy?

LVEF under 45% or fractional shortening under 30%.

Report a problem with entry 85: Peripartum cardiomyopathy criteria: LVEF below 45% (fractional shortening below 30%) in late pregnancy or up to 5 months after, without earlier heart disease

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Part 4 · Conditions and mechanismsRisk factors and Zika

  1. 086Endometriosis: risk factors
  2. 087Preeclampsia risk factors: nulliparity and obesity; smoking is protective in Stoelting but listed as a risk in Faust
  3. 088Zika virus in pregnancy: microcephaly
Part 4086 / 88

Endometriosis: risk factors

In a young woman with dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia and pelvic pain, early menarche is the recognised risk factor for endometriosis. The effect is modest but real.

Why

The link comes from pooled case-control data comparing age at menarche in women with and without endometriosis. Pooling every study at first showed no clear difference, but the studies varied widely. When only studies that adjusted carefully for confounders were combined, the women with endometriosis had consistently reached menarche earlier. Some controls in the original studies may also have had undiagnosed disease. That kind of misclassification hides differences, so the true risk is more likely understated than overstated.

The trap

Multiparity reproductive factor not menarche. Multiparity is tempting because, like menarche, it is part of a woman's reproductive history. It fails because the evidence links endometriosis to earlier menarche, not to having had many pregnancies. Choosing it swaps the supported reproductive factor for one the data do not identify.

Evidence

A meta-analysis of case-control studies found a small but significant increase in endometriosis risk with earlier menarche once it was limited to well-controlled studies. The authors add that misclassification of disease in those studies may mean the real risk is larger.

Sources: Outside our books: Is early age at menarche a risk factor for endometriosis? A systematic review and meta-analysis of case-control studies (2012)

Clues · tap one to see the answer
A young woman has dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia and pelvic pain. Recognised risk factor for endometriosis?

Early menarche.

Is having had many pregnancies a risk factor for endometriosis?

No; the evidence links earlier menarche, not multiparity.

Common misconception That multiparity raises the risk

Report a problem with entry 86: Endometriosis: risk factors

Part 4087 / 88

Preeclampsia risk factors: nulliparity and obesity; smoking is protective in Stoelting but listed as a risk in Faust

Nulliparity and obesity raise pre-eclampsia risk; maternal age counts only at extremes; multiparity does not; smoking lowers risk, so never pick it.

Why

Stoelting groups the risks of pre-eclampsia with vascular disease in general: obesity, chronic hypertension and renal disease. A first pregnancy also adds risk. Age counts only at the extremes. Stoelting names both early and advanced age, and Faust sets the cut-off above 35 years, so 'age' with no value given is not a risk factor. Smoking harms pregnancy in many ways, yet Stoelting says it protects against pre-eclampsia and Barash calls this paradoxical. Faust's risk-factor box is the lone dissent and lists smoking as a risk.

The trap

Smoking paradoxically lowers pre-eclampsia risk. Smoking harms so many pregnancy outcomes, and Faust's risk-factor box lists it, so it feels like an obvious vascular risk. However, Stoelting says smoking lowers the risk of pre-eclampsia and Barash agrees. Faust is the lone dissent, so smoking is never the risk factor to choose.

Evidence

Stoelting lists obesity, nulliparity, very young or older maternal age and general vascular disease as risks, and calls smoking protective. Barash agrees that smoking seems protective. Faust's box lists nulliparity, age over 35 years and obesity, and also lists smoking.

Sources: Stoelting 8eBarash 9eFaust

Clues · tap one to see the answer
First pregnancy or fourth pregnancy: which carries the higher risk of pre-eclampsia?

The first; nulliparity is a risk factor, multiparity is not.

Does smoking raise the risk of pre-eclampsia?

No; it appears to lower the risk.

Common misconception That smoking is a risk factor

Report a problem with entry 87: Preeclampsia risk factors: nulliparity and obesity; smoking is protective in Stoelting but listed as a risk in Faust

Part 4088 / 88

Zika virus in pregnancy: microcephaly

Zika exposure in pregnancy causes microcephaly (an abnormally small head), not macrocephaly, skeletal dysplasia or a cardiopulmonary defect.

Why

Zika infection in the mother is often silent or mild. There may be only fever and a rash, so a history of travel or of an outbreak may be the only clue. The harms that are recognised affect the nervous system. Babies of infected mothers are more likely to have a reduced head size, and infected adults show more Guillain–Barré syndrome. The virus also spreads through blood and sexual contact. Pregnant staff are advised to take extra protection because the fetus seems to be at particular risk.

The trap

Macrocephaly opposite Zika microcephaly pathology. Macrocephaly differs from the right answer by only one or two letters. A rushed reader who remembers that Zika affects the baby's head picks it on sight. Zika causes the opposite problem: the head is abnormally small, not enlarged.

Evidence

Most people infected with Zika have no symptoms or only mild ones. However, maternal infection is linked to more microcephaly in newborns and to more Guillain–Barré syndrome. Pregnant carers should use greater protection because of the apparent risk to the fetus.

Sources: Barash 9e

Clues · tap one to see the answer
Fetal effect of maternal Zika infection?

Microcephaly.

Does Zika in pregnancy enlarge or shrink the baby's head?

Shrinks it: microcephaly, not macrocephaly.

Common misconception That Zika causes macrocephaly

Report a problem with entry 88: Zika virus in pregnancy: microcephaly

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Sheet 05 · Obstetric88 / 88

That is every concept on the obstetric sheet.

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